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nignag [31]
3 years ago
15

I have a word problem with a pattern. I just can't figure it out. - On the first night, Kim's mom gave her a nickel, on the seco

nd, she gave her five nickels, on the third, she gave her fourteen nickels and on the fourth night she gave her thirty nickels. Her mother asked Kim to figure out what she would receive on the tenth night. - I know this must be easy, but I just don't see it.
Mathematics
1 answer:
denpristay [2]3 years ago
6 0
1st night Nickel - 5 pennies
2nd night 5 nickels - 25 pennies
3rd night 14 nickels - 70 pennies
4th night 30 nickels - 150 pennies
5th night 46 nickels
6th night 78 nickels
7th night 126 nickels
8th night 206 nickels
9th night 334 nickels
10th night 542 nickels

So her mother would give Kim 542 nickels on the 10th night.

Differences between number of nickels: 4, 9, 16

9 - 4 = 5
16 - 9 = 7

The pattern is Kim's mom gives her child two more nickels plus the amount of nickels she got the day before.

This was a little tricky so I don't know if this is right but I hope this helps you!
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Is x^2-8x+64 a perfect square trinomial
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Answer:

No, it is not.

Step-by-step explanation:

There is no way to simply this trinomial into two identical binomials.

4 0
3 years ago
. Imagine a game of 3 players where exactly one player wins in the end and all players have equal chances of being the winner. T
lbvjy [14]

Answer:

5/9

Step-by-step explanation:

Number of players = 3

number of times game is repeated = 4

P( any person wins a game ) = 1/3

P ( any person does not win a game ) = 1 - 1/3 = 2/3

P ( any person wins no game in 4 attempts ) = ( 2/3 )^4 = 16/81

<em>Note : each player has equal chance of winning </em>

<u>Find the probability that there is at least one person who wins no games </u>

lets represent the probability of each player not wining a game with alphabet A

A1 = player 1 wins no game

A2 = player 2 wins no game

A3 = players 3 wins no game

Applying the inclusion-exclusion formula

<em>P( A1 ∪ A2 U A3 )</em><em> = P(A1 ) + P(A2) + P(A3) - P( A1 ∩ A2 ) - P( A2 ∩ A3 ) - P( A1            ∩ A3 )  + P( A1 ∩ A2 ∩ A3 ) </em>

where

P( A1 ∩ A2 ) = P( A1 wins all games )

P ( A1 wins all games in 4 attempts ) = ( 1/3 )^4 = 1/81

P( A1 ∩ A2 ∩ A3 ) = P ( no players wins any game in 4 attempts ) = 0

Hence

P( A1 ∪ A2 U A3 ) = 16/81 + 16/81 + 16/81 - 1/81 - 1/81 - 1/81 - 0 = 5/9

6 0
3 years ago
Tomic and Brooke make a game of shooting free throws. Each basket is worth 2.5 point.Each miss is worth - 0.75 points.Out of 30
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They would have 29.5 point
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ILL MARK U BRAINLIEST
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Answer:

-6x-16

Step-by-step explanation:

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3 years ago
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The weight of the chocolate and Hershey Kisses are normally distributed with a mean of 4.5338 G and a standard deviation of 0.10
Salsk061 [2.6K]

For the bell-shaped graph of the normal distribution of weights of Hershey kisses, the area under the curve is 1, the value of the median and mode both is 4.5338 G and the value of variance is 0.0108.

In the given question,

The weight of the chocolate and Hershey Kisses are normally distributed with a mean of 4.5338 G and a standard deviation of 0.1039 G.

We have to find the answer of many question we solve the question one by one.

From the question;

Mean(μ) = 4.5338 G

Standard Deviation(σ) = 0.1039 G

(a) We have to find for the bell-shaped graph of the normal distribution of weights of Hershey kisses what is the area under the curve.

As we know that when the mean is 0 and a standard deviation is 1 then it is known as normal distribution.

So area under the bell shaped curve will be

\int\limits^{\infty}_{-\infty} {f(x)} \, dx= 1

This shows that that the total area of under the curve.

(b) We have to find the median.

In the normal distribution mean, median both are same. So the value of median equal to the value of mean.

As we know that the value of mean is 4.5338 G.

So the value of median is also 4.5338 G.

(c) We have to find the mode.

In the normal distribution mean, mode both are same. So the value of mode equal to the value of mean.

As we know that the value of mean is 4.5338 G.

So the value of mode is also 4.5338 G.

(d) we have to find the value of variance.

The value of variance is equal to the square of standard deviation.

So Variance = (0.1039)^2

Variance = 0.0108

Hence, the value of variance is 0.0108.

To learn more about normally distribution link is here

brainly.com/question/15103234

#SPJ1

3 0
1 year ago
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