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Marta_Voda [28]
3 years ago
6

What is the difference between rutherford's model of the atom and bohr's model of the atom

Physics
1 answer:
Amanda [17]3 years ago
7 0

Answer:

Rutherford described the atom as consisting of a tiny positive mass surrounded by a cloud of negative electrons. Bohr thought that electrons orbited the nucleus in quantised orbits. Bohr built upon Rutherford's model of the atom. ... So it was not possible for electrons to occupy just any energy level.

Explanation:

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using mass and distance, identify and compare the sun's and moon's contribution to the formation of tides on earth
vekshin1

Answer:

Based on its mass, the sun's gravitational attraction to the Earth is more than 177 times greater than that of the moon to the Earth.

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HELPPP IM DESPERATE
damaskus [11]

the first one cuz I know

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2 years ago
What would happen if brains weren't flexible
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 <span>brains need to be flexible because if they weren't we would never be able to increase our intellect. human beings are more flexible intellectually because we can turn our hands to more complex things and have the ability to learn better.</span>
3 0
3 years ago
Assume that a pendulum used to drive a grandfather clock has a length L0=1.00m and a mass M at temperature T=20.00°C. It can be
Sedaia [141]

Answer:

The period will change a 0,036 % relative to its initial state

Explanation:

When the rod expands by heat its moment of inertia increases, but since there was no applied rotational force to the pendulum , the angular momentum remains constant. In other words:

ζ= Δ(Iω)/Δt, where ζ is the applied torque, I is moment of inertia, ω is angular velocity and t is time.

since there was no torque ( no rotational force applied)

ζ=0 → Δ(Iω)=0 → I₂ω₂ -I₁ω₁ = 0 → I₁ω₁ = I₂ω₂

thus

I₂/I₁ =ω₁/ω₂ , (2) represents final state and (1) initial state

we know also that ω=2π/T , where T is the period of the pendulum

I₂/I₁ =ω₁/ω₂ = (2π/T₁)/(2π/T₂)= T₂/T₁

Therefore to calculate the change in the period we have to calculate the moments of inertia. Looking at tables, can be found that the moment of inertia of a rod that rotates around an end is

I = 1/3 ML²

Therefore since the mass M is the same before and after the expansion

I₁ = 1/3 ML₁² , I₂ = 1/3 ML₂²  → I₂/I₁ = (1/3 ML₂²)/(1/3 ML₁²)= L₂²/L₁²= (L₂/L₁)²

since

L₂= L₁ (1+αΔT) , L₂/L₁=1+αΔT  , where ΔT is the change in temperature

now putting all together

T₂/T₁=I₂/I₁=(L₂/L₁)² = (1+αΔT) ²

finally

%change in period =(T₂-T₁)/T₁ = T₂/T₁ - 1 = (1+αΔT) ² -1

%change in period =(1+αΔT) ² -1 =[ 1+18×10⁻⁶ °C⁻¹ *10 °C]² -1 = 3,6 ×10⁻⁴ = 3,6 ×10⁻² %  = 0,036 %

4 0
3 years ago
(100 pts)<br>Why can't you use distance divide by time to calculate the instantaneous<br>speed?​
Fiesta28 [93]

Answer:

Instantaneous speed means speed at any instant

that means Speed is changing with time

You know speed is distance/time

So that means distance is also changing with time

So we take infinitesimal small distance per infinitesimal small time As we assume speed is constant in infinitesimal small time dt

So, we take speed = ds/dt

ds = infinitesimal small distance

dt = infinitesimal small time

As its ratio is equal to speed at any instant

Note : We are taking infinitesimal small distance

But :) we are taking infinitesimal small time also

As you know if denominator is small fraction is large So fraction always give large value

So it's not O ( this makes confuse to most of students)

So, thanks

Good question

Keep thinking like this :)

4 0
3 years ago
Read 2 more answers
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