Go to photos, press “select” and then press the picture you want to send then press the button that looks like a box that has an arrow coming out of it. After that, press “messages” and then type in the person that you want to send it to.
Answer:
$34,200
Explanation:
Step 1 : Cost of Equipment
<em>Cost of Equipment include Purchase Price plus other costs directly incurred to put the asset in location and condition intended for use by management</em>
Cost of Equipment = $110,500
Step 2 : Depreciation
Depreciation = (Cost - Residual Value)/ Useful Life
= $17,100
Step 3 : Accumulated Depreciation
Accumulated Depreciation = $17,100 x 2 = $34,200
Therefore,
the amount of accumulated depreciation at December 31, 2022 is $34,200
Based on his deductible and coinsurance cap, the amount that Barry will pay is <u>$4,560.</u>
<h3>Amount Barry will pay </h3>
Barry will have to pay the entire deductible of $1,200. The expenses that are left will then be shared between him and the insurer in a 20% - 80% ratio but he will not pay more than $5,000.
Total he will pay out of pocket is therefore:
= Deductible + ( 20% x (Medical expenses - deductible))
Solving gives:
= 1,200 + ( 20% x (18,000 - 1,200))
= $4,560
In conclusion, he will pay $4,560.
Find out more on insurance payments at brainly.com/question/25973180.
Answer:
Sam change: -5.13%
Dave change -18.01%
Explanation:
If interest rate increase by 2%
then the YTM of the bond will be 9.3%
We need eto calcualte the present value of the coupon and maturity of the bond at this new rate:
<em><u>For the coupon payment we use the formula for ordinary annuity</u></em>
Coupon payment: 1,000 x 7.3% / 2 payment per year: 36.50
time 6 (3 years x 2 payment per year)
YTM seiannual: 0.0465 (9.3% annual /2 = 4.65% semiannual)
PV $187.3546
<u><em>For the maturity we calculate usign the lump sum formula:</em></u>
Maturity: $ 1,000.00
time: 6 payment
rate: 0.0465
PV 761.32
Now, we add both together:
PV coupon $187.3546 + PV maturity $761.3154 = $948.6700
now we calcualte the change in percentage:
948.67/1,000 - 1 = -0.051330026 = -5.13
For Dave we do the same:
C 36.50
time 40
rate 0.0465
PV $657.5166
Maturity 1,000.00
time 40.00
rate 0.0465
PV 162.34
PV c $657.5166
PV m $162.3419
Total $819.8585
Change:
819.86 / 1,000 - 1 = -0.180141521 = -18.01%
Answer:
the bad debt expense is $900
Explanation:
The computation of the bad debt expense is shown below:
bad debt expense is
= Written off amount + estimated uncollectible amount at the year end
= $650 + $250
= $900
We simply added the above two items so that the amount of the bad debts for the first year could come
Hence, the bad debt expense is $900
