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katovenus [111]
3 years ago
13

10 in. 2 in. 7 in. What’s the surface area

Mathematics
1 answer:
SIZIF [17.4K]3 years ago
7 0

Answer:H

Step-by-step explanation:

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A comedy show sells lower level tickets for $77 and upper level tickets for $99. On the opening night 2615 tickets were sold for
babunello [35]

Let x represent lower level tickets that cost $77

Let y represent upper level tickets that cost $99

Cost equation: 77x + 99y = 247,071

Tickets equation: x + y = 2615

Using the elimination method, multiply the second equation by -77:

77x + 99y = 247,071

-77x - 77y = -201,355

--> 22y = 45,716

--> y = 2,078

Now plug "y" into either equation and solve for "x". I chose the Tickets equation. x + y = 2615 → x = 2615 - y → x = 2615 - 2078 → x = 537

Answer: lower level = 537 tickets, upper level = 2078 tickets.


7 0
3 years ago
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I really need help please and thank you
loris [4]

Answer:

15 and 20

Step-by-step explanation:

7 0
3 years ago
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Ellie drives 22.5 miles in 45 minutes. If she drove three hours in total at the same rate, how far did she go?
Scilla [17]

Answer:

Ellie drove 90 miles in three hours.

Step-by-step explanation:

6 0
3 years ago
What is the equation of the line that passes through the point (4,-7) and has a
aalyn [17]

Answer:

y = -\frac{1}{2} x -5

point slope form....

y - (-7) = -1/2(x-4)

y + 7 = -x/2 + 2

2y + 14 = -x + 4

2y = -x -10

y = -1/2 x - 5

Step-by-step explanation:

7 0
3 years ago
You take a quiz with 6 multiple choice questions. After you studied your estimated that you would have about an 80 % chance of g
Arada [10]

Answer:

1.15%

Step-by-step explanation:

To get the probability of m  independent events you multiply the individual probability of each event. In this case we have m independent events, each one with the same probability, therefore:

p^{m}

0.8^{20} = 1.15\%

This is a particlar scenario of binomial distribution problem. So the binomial distribution questions are about the number of success of m independent events, where every individual event has the same p probability. In the question we have 20 events and each event has a probability of 80%. The binomial distribution formula is:

\binom{n}{k} * p^{k} * (1-p)^{n-k}

n is the number of events

k is the number of success

p is the probability of each individual event

\binom{n}{k} is the binomial coefficient

the binomial coefficient allows to find the subsets of k elements in a set of n elements.  In this case there is only one subset possible since the only way to get 20 of 20 correct questions is to getting right all questions (for getting 19 of 20 questions there are many ways, for example getting the first question wrong and all the other questions right, or getting second questions wrong and all the other questions right, etc).

\binom{n}{k} = \frac{n!}{k!(n-k)!}

therefore, for this questions we have:

\frac{20!}{20!(20-20)!} * 0.8^{20} * (1-0.8)^{0} = 1.15\%

4 0
3 years ago
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