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LiRa [457]
3 years ago
12

Please help 10 points !!

Mathematics
1 answer:
enyata [817]3 years ago
4 0

The will intersect at a point with a positive x coordinate.

We can tell this because they actually already have a shared space on the graph. If you plot the 3 points of g(x) given, you'll see that f(x) and g(x) both share the coordinate (1, 3). As a result, we know that they do intersect and it is where x (1) is a positive number.

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KonstantinChe [14]

Answer:

Step-by-step explanation:

3 0
3 years ago
What’s the measure of the missing angles?
Ymorist [56]

Answer:

Angle 1 equals 90 degrees. Angle 2 equals 38 degrees.

Step-by-step explanation:

Angle 1 is at the cross of two perpendicular lines, making it 90 degrees. Angle 2 can be found by making the two equal side lengths and the middle line into one triangle. This means that two of the angles are 52 degrees. This leaves 76 degrees to be split in the triangle. The middle line cuts the angle in half, making it 38 degrees

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A point is represented by a single dot and
evablogger [386]
A letter, which is how you name it. If that is what your asking, of course.
5 0
3 years ago
Suppose a manufacturer finds that 95% of their production is normal but the final 5% has one or more flaws. Each flawed good has
RUDIKE [14]

Answer:

1)    

FLAW                         TYPE2         NO TYPE2 FLAW

TYPE1                         0.015           0.025

NO TYPE1 FLAW        0.01             0.95

2) 0.04 and $0.04

3) 0.025 and $0.025

4) 0.015 and $0.015

5) 0.95 and $0.95

Step-by-step explanation:

Given that;

financial cost = $1

p(flaw) = 0.05  

p(type 1 flaw / flaw) = 80% = 0.8

p(type 2 flaw / flaw) = 50% = 0.5

p( type 1 and 2 flaw/flaw) = 30% = 0.30

1) Bivariate Table

p( type 1 flaw) = p(flaw) × p(type 1 flaw/flaw) = 0.05 × 0.8 = 0.04

p( type 2 flaw) = p(flaw) × p(type 2 flaw/flaw)  = 0.05 × 0.5 = 0.025

p( type 1 and 2 flaw) =  p(flow) × p( type 1 & 2 flaw/flaw) = 0.05 × 0.3 = 0.015

p( only 1 flow) = 0.04 - 0.015 = 0.025

p( only 2 flow) =  0.025 - 0.015 = 0.01

THEREFORE  the Bivariate Table;

FLAW                         TYPE2         NO TYPE2 FLAW

TYPE1                         0.015           0.025

NO TYPE1 FLAW       0.01              0.95

2) probability and expectations of type 1 flaw?

p( type 1 flaw) = p(flaw) × p(type 1 flaw/flaw) = 0.05 × 0.8 = 0.04

Expected financial cost to the firm per good = $1 × 0.04 = $0.04

3)  probability and expectation of Type 2 flaw

p( type 2 flaw) = p(flaw) × p(type 2 flaw/flaw)  = 0.05 × 0.5 = 0.025

Expected financial cost to the firm per good = $1 × 0.025 = $0.025

4) probability and expectations of Type 1 and 2 flaws

p( type 1 and 2 flaw) =  p(flow) × p( type 1 & 2 flaw/flaw) = 0.05 × 0.3 = 0.015

Expected financial cost to the firm per good = $1 * 0.015 = $0.015

5) probability and expectations of no flaws?

Probability of no flaw = P(No flaw) =95% =  0.95

Expected financial cost saved the firm per good due to no flaw

= $1 × 0.95 = $0.95

5 0
3 years ago
What’s the value of this expression?
yaroslaw [1]

Answer:

ans is 0

Step-by-step explanation:

(3/5)0×-2

(3/5)^0

so the answer Is 0

8 0
3 years ago
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