F(C) = 9/5C + 32
I'll just change F(C) to y and 9/5C to 9/5x.
y = 9/5x + 32
inverse...
x = 9/5y + 32
9/5y = x - 32
y = 5/9x - 160/9
Sooooo
F(C) = 5/9C - 160/9
Answer:
-6w-22
Step-by-step explanation:
-3(2w+6)-4=
= -6w-18-4=
= -6w-22
So,choose C (none of the above) :)
Answer:
No
No
Yes
Step-by-step explanation:
-1/4 is the only correct solution to the equation represented by the graph.
Answer:
The answer is x=3 and y=5
Step-by-step explanation:
Step: Solve 2x+y = 11 for y
2x+y=11
2x+y+−2x=11+−2x (Add -2x to both sides)
y=−2x+11
Step: Substitute −2x+11 for y in 4x−3y = −3
4x−3y = −3
4x−3(−2x+11) = −3
10x−33 = −3 (Simplify both sides of the equation)
10x−33+33 = −3+33 (Add 33 to both sides)
10x=30
= 
(Divide both sides by 10)
x=3
Step: Substitute 3 for x in y = −2x+11
y=−2x+11
y=(−2)(3)+11
y=5 (Simplify both sides of the equation)
Answer:
x=3 and y=5
Answer:
It will take approximately 5 hours for all the oil to leak.
Step-by-step explanation:
The tanker continues to leak 720 gal/h after the first 8 hours. This means that the volume it has leaked after 8 hours is 720×8 = 5760 gallons.
Let us assume that the rate follows an arithmetic progression such that at every 8 hours, 5760 gallons of oil.
The first term of the sequence would be original volume of oil contained in the tank. This means that the first term is 25000 gallons. After 8 hours, the volume left would be 25000 - 5760= 19240 gallons.
The common difference would be -5760 gallons since the volume is decreasing.
When the volume becomes 0, that would be the final volume of the the tank when all the oil is leaked.
For arithmetic progression,
Tn = a+(n-1)d
n = time it will take for the entire volume to leak off
d = -5760
Tn = 0
a = 25000
0 = 25000 + (n-1) -5760
0 = 25000 -5760n + 5760
5760n = 25000 +5760= 30760
n = 30760/5760 = 5.32
Approximately 5 hours
