Answer:
A. $53,167
Explanation:
The computation of the depreciation expense under the straight-line method is shown below:
= (Original cost - residual value) ÷ (useful life)
= ($328,000 - $9,000) ÷ (6 years)
= ($319,000) ÷ (6 years)
= $53,167
In this method, the depreciation is same for all the remaining useful life.
The estimated useful life in units is used in units of production method. Hence, it is ignored here.
Answer:
Total cost= $2,040
Explanation:
Giving the following information:
Total machine-hours 30,000
Total fixed manufacturing overhead cost $ 252,000
Variable manufacturing overhead per machine-hour $ 2.10
Job T687:
Total machine-hours 30
Direct materials $675
Direct labor cost $1,050
First, we need to calculate the estimated overhead rate:
Estimated manufacturing overhead rate= total estimated overhead costs for the period/ total amount of allocation base
Estimated manufacturing overhead rate= (252,000/30,000) +2.1= $10.5 per machine-hour
Now, we can calculate the total cost of Job T687:
Total cost= direct material + direct labor + allocated overhead
Total cost= 675 + 1,050 + (10.5*30)= $2,040
Answer:
Comment for statement A - The firm must still compare the IRR with the opportunity cost of capital when using the IRR rule. Therefore, even with the IRR method, the appropriate discount rate must still be specified.
Comment for statement B - There should be a higher discount rate on risky cash flows than the rate used to discount less risky cash flows.
Making use of the payback rule is equivalent to using the NPV rule with a zero discount rate for cash flows before the payback period and an infinite discount rate for cash flows thereafter.
Explanation:
a)
“I like the IRR rule. I can use it to rank projects without having to specify a discount rate”
The firm must still compare the IRR with the opportunity cost of capital when using the IRR rule. Therefore, even with the IRR method, the appropriate discount rate must still be specified.
b.
“I like the payback rule. As long as the minimum payback period is short, the rule makes sure that the company takes no borderline projects. That reduces risk”
There should be a higher discount rate on risky cash flows than the rate used to discount less risky cash flows.
Making use of the payback rule is equivalent to using the NPV rule with a zero discount rate for cash flows before the payback period and an infinite discount rate for cash flows thereafter.
Answer:
In a Chapter 11 bankruptcy, a class of creditors is considered to have accepted the bankruptcy plan when:
one-half of the class in number and two-thirds of the class in dollar amount agree.
Explanation:
In a Chapter 7 bankruptcy, the business assets are liquidated to pay the creditors. In a Chapter 11 bankruptcy, the business assets are not liquidated. Instead, the business is refinanced as the assets and debts are reorganized, making it possible for the continued existence of the business. This is the reason the agreement of the creditors are usually paramount in the decision to undergo a Chapter 11 bankruptcy, unlike a Chapter 7 bankruptcy.
Answer:
Explanation:
In every single company, the main aim of installing an office equipment is to make profit. After the office equipment made a revenue of $29400, Jing Company incurred expenses of $18500. The value of the equipment was $29400- $18500= $10900. It was sold for $10400 meaning that the net income of the equipment was $10400-$10900= -$500. Therefore, it will incur a net loss of $500.
