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SCORPION-xisa [38]
3 years ago
7

You are evaluating two different silicon wafer milling machines. The Techron I costs $245,000, has a three-year life, and has pr

etax operating costs of $63,000 per year. The Techron II costs $420,000, has a five-year life, and has pretax operating costs of $35,000 per year. For both milling machines, use straight-line depreciation to zero over the project’s life and assume a salvage value of $40,000. If your tax rate is 22 percent and your discount rate is 10 percent, compute the EAC for both machines. Which do you prefer? Why?
Business
1 answer:
sveticcg [70]3 years ago
5 0

Answer:

Techron I . According to the calculations, Techron I reports a better performance.

Explanation:

Techron I

Cost of Machine = $245,000

Useful Life = 3 years

Annual Depreciation = Cost of Machine / Useful Life

Annual Depreciation = $245,000 / 3

Annual Depreciation = $81,666.67

Salvage Value = $40,000

After-tax Salvage Value = $40,000 * (1 - 0.22)

After-tax Salvage Value = $31,200

Annual OCF = Pretax Operating Costs * (1 - tax) + tax * Depreciation

Annual OCF = -$63,000 * (1 - 0.22) + 0.22 * $81,666.67

Annual OCF = -$31,173.33

NPV = -$245,000 - $31,173.33 * PVIFA(10%, 3) + $31,200 * PVIF(10%, 3)

NPV = -$245,000 - $31,173.33 * 2.4869 + $31,200 * 0.7513

NPV = -$299,084.39

EAC = NPV / PVIFA(10%, 3)

EAC = -$299,084.39 / 2.4869

EAC = -$120,263.94

Techron II:

Cost of Machine = $420,000

Useful Life = 5 years

Annual Depreciation = Cost of Machine / Useful Life

Annual Depreciation = $420,000 / 5

Annual Depreciation = $84,000

Salvage Value = $40,000

After-tax Salvage Value = $40,000 * (1 - 0.22)

After-tax Salvage Value = $31,200

Annual OCF = Pretax Operating Costs * (1 - tax) + tax * Depreciation

Annual OCF = -$35,000 * (1 - 0.22) + 0.22 * $84,000

Annual OCF = -$8,820

NPV = -$420,000 - $8,820 * PVIFA(10%, 5) + $31,200 * PVIF(10%, 5)

NPV = -$420,000 - $8,820 * 3.7908 + $31,200 * 0.6209

NPV = -$434,062.78

EAC = NPV / PVIFA(10%, 5)

EAC = -$434,062.78 / 3.7908

EAC = -$114,504.27

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Explanation:

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r=Q*p=Q*(10-\frac{Q}{1000}) \\R=10Q-\frac{Q^2}{1000}

The number of rides 'Q' for which the derivate of the revenue function is zero is the revenue-maximizing number of rides:

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3 years ago
In January 2020, Sunland Company, a newly formed company, issued 10300 shares of its $8 par common stock for $13 per share. On J
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Answer:

The correct option is the acquisition of these treasury shares decreased total stockholders' equity.

Explanation:

Initially the total stockholders' equity is $133,900 ($13*10,300) which comprised of $82,400  common stock ($8*10,300) $51,500 paid in capital in capital in excess of par value.

By repurchasing 1,030 treasury stock at $10,the total stockholders' equity decrease by $10,300,which leaves a balance of $123,600 ($133,900-$10,300).

In other words,the first option is the correct choice of answer

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3 years ago
Some high-end retail stores that distribute mail-order catalogs will prominently offer some very high priced goods for sale (for
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This practice is an example of: anchoring

<h3><u>Explanation:</u></h3>

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4 years ago
Paul Springer plans to save for a down payment for a house in 10 years. He will be able to invest $12,000 today in a money marke
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The correct answer is $20,772.92.

Explanation:

According to the scenario, the given data are as follows:

Payment (pmt) = $12,000

Rate of interest = 5.50%

Rate of interest per month (r) = 5.50 / 12 months = 0.46%

Time = 10 years (n) = 120 months

So, the future value can be calculated by using following formula:

Future value =  PMT ×(1+r)^n

= $12,000 × ( 1 + 0.46% )^120

= $20,772.92

Hence, the future value at the end of 10 years will be $20,772.92.

8 0
3 years ago
Today is January 1, 2020. On January 1 of the years 2021 through 2030, you are to receive $50,000. If cash flows are discounted
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Answer:

$307,230

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Provided details,

Today's date = January 1, 2020

Amount to be received = $50,000

Date of receiving = Jan 1, 2021

That is after 1 year.

Total period of receiving amount = 10 years

Discount rate = 10%

Discounted present value annuity factor = \frac{1}{(1+0.1)^1} + \frac{1}{(1+0.1)^2} + \frac{1}{(1+0.1)^3} + \frac{1}{(1+0.1)^4} + \frac{1}{(1+0.1)^5} + \frac{1}{(1+0.1)^6} + \frac{1}{(1+0.1)^7} + \frac{1}{(1+0.1)^8} + \frac{1}{(1+0.1)^9} + \frac{1}{(1+0.1)^1^0}

= 6.1446

Thus, present value of $50,000 each year received for 10 years = $50,000 \times 6.1446 = $307,230

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