They are both decimals.
But 0.04 > 0.004.
By doing base times area that is what I will do
$26.60 would be you’re answer i believe
Answer:
No, none of the number need to be 48 for the mean to be 48. To get a mean, you add up all the number and divide it by the amount of numbers.
Example:
the mean of 10, 79, 42, 88, 19, and 50 is 48, but the actual number 48 was not part of the set.
10 + 79 + 42 + 88 + 19 + 50 = 288
288 ÷ 6 = 48
