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Vaselesa [24]
3 years ago
15

Why is it important for scientist to use the international system of units

Physics
1 answer:
Nuetrik [128]3 years ago
4 0
In my opinion it's like a one language, for example when you are trying to work with collaboration, and let's assume that the people around you are speaking in different language, it makes no sense if you all start to figure out what's going on because you can't understand each other... But if everyone speaks in one language, everything will work like a charm.

In this case scientist uses international system of units because, if he/she needs some help from others, he/she can easily ask others because everyone can understand those units that he/she is using....

I hope it makes sense.
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Which statements describe intensity? Check all that apply.
REY [17]

Answer:

it's A, D, E

Explanation:

6 0
3 years ago
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If the position of a particle on the x-axis at time t is −5t2, then the average velocity of the particle for 0 ≤ t ≤ 3 is
Drupady [299]

Answer:

v = 15 m / s

Explanation:

In this exercise we are given the position function

          x = 5 t²

and we are asked for the average velocity in an interval between t = 0 and t= 3 s, which is defined by the displacement between the time interval

          v= \frac{v_{f} - v_{o} }{t_{f} - t_{o} }

let's look for the displacements

        t = 0     x₀ = 0 m

        t = 3     x_{f} = 5 3 2

                     x_{f} = 45 m

 

we substitute

           v = \frac{45 -0}{3 - 0}

           v = 15 m / s

3 0
3 years ago
If you were in a spaceship watching a ball hover at rest (inside the spaceship) in mid-air, and the spaceship suddenly began rap
USPshnik [31]

Answer:

It will still hover until the spaceship "hits" or exerts a force on it.

Explanation:

Remember, if there is no net force, there is no acceleration or movement.

In this case, our ball is hovering in the spaceship, and in space, we can assume there is no F_g, and we can assume there is no F_N, nor no forces acting against it.

So, the ball would not move.

However, once the spaceship starts accelerating, the ball would still hover until the spaceship exerts a force on it.

This is because of the same thing as explained above, no forces acting on it, therefore, no acceleration.

Think about it this way.

Imagine you jumped up, then someone threw a ball at you. Now let's imagine you can't move until you hit the floor, meaning that in an ideal situation only  F_g is acting on you. Now again, let's imagine time slows really down for you, but not the ball. Before the ball comes and hits you, you are "hovering" like a ball. But after the ball hits you, you move a little because the ball exerted a force on you.

If you did not understand what I meant above, just forget about it, and think about the fact that if there is a Net force (all the force values added up), then there is acceleration and movement.

4 0
2 years ago
How do you find the speed of an object given its mass and kinetic energy (what is the formula)?
madam [21]
   v  =   √ { 2*(KE) ] / m } ; 

Now, plug in the known values for "KE" ["kinetic energy"] and "m" ["mass"] ; 
        
and solve for "v".

______________________________________________________
Explanation:
_____________________________________________________
The formula is:  KE = (½) * (m) * (v²) ;
_____________________________________
  
"Kinetic energy" = (½) * (mass) * (velocity , "squared")
________________________________________________
Note:  Velocity is similar to speed, in that velocity means "speed and direction";  however, if you "square" a negative number, you will get a "positive"; since:  a "negative" multiplied by a "negative" equals a "positive".
____________________________________________
So, we have the formula:
___________________________________
KE = (½) * (m) * (v²) ;  to solve for "(v)" ; velocity, which is very similar to                                          the "speed"; 
___________________________________________________
we arrange the formula ;
__________________________________________________
(KE) = (½) * (m) * (v²) ;  ↔  (½)*(m)* (v²) = (KE) ; 
___________________________________________________

→ We have:  (½)*(m)* (v²) = (KE)  ; we isolate, "m" (mass) on one side of the equation:
______________________________________________________
   
→ We divide each side of the equation by: "[(½)* (m)]" ; 
___________________________________________________
    
           →   [ (½)*(m)*(v²) ] /  [(½)* (m)]  = (KE) / [(½)* (m)]<span> ;
</span>______________________________________________________
 to get: 
______________________________________________________
                           →   v²     =   (KE) / [(½)* (m)]
                     
                           →   v²     = 2 KE / m
_______________________________________________________
Take the "square root" of each side of the equation ;
_______________________________________________________
                          →  √ (v²)  =  √ { 2*(KE) ] / m }
________________________________________________________

                          →     v  =   √ { 2*(KE) ] / m } ; 

Now, plug in the known values for "KE" ["kinetic energy"] and "m" ["mass"]; 
       
and solve for "v".

______________________________________________________
8 0
3 years ago
What component of a longitudinal sound wave is analogous to a trough of a transverse wave?
anzhelika [568]

Explanation:

There are two components of a longitudinal sound wave which are compression and rarefaction. Similarly, there are two components of the transverse wave, the crest, and trough.

The crest of a wave is defined as the part that has a maximum value of displacement while the trough is defined as the part which corresponds to minimum displacement.

While compression is that space where the particles are close together while the rarefaction is that space where the particles are far apart from each other.

So, the refraction or the rarefied part of a longitudinal sound wave is analogous to a trough of a transverse wave.  

6 0
3 years ago
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