Answer:
Option (a) is correct.
Explanation:
Contribution margin per marketing plan = Sales - Variable cost
= $3,000 - $2,000
= $1,000
A.
(1) 
Break even in marketing plan = 400
(2) Break-even in dollars:
= Break-even in marketing plan × Average rate per plan
= 400 × 3,000
= 1,200,000
(3) Margin of safety = Actual sales - Break-even sales in dollars
= 1,500,000 - 1,200,000
= 300,000
= 20%
B.
(1) Contribution margin per marketing plan = Sales - Variable cost
= $4,000 - $2,000
= $2,000
Break even in marketing plan = 200
(2) Break-even in dollars:
= Break-even in marketing plan × Average rate per plan
= 200 × 4,000
= 800,000
(3) Margin of safety = Actual sales - Break-even sales in dollars
= 1,500,000 - 800,000
= 700,000
= 47%
Therefore, option (a) would achieve the margin of safety ratio more than 45%.
You must be careful of any bikers who decide to take the sidewalks and of any cars that come close when you walk on the road
<h3>
Answer:</h3><h3>Tranche A interest $50m*9%*3/12 $1,125,000 </h3><h3>Tranche B interest $100m*10%*3/12 $2,500,000 </h3><h3>Tranche C interest $50m*11%*3/12 $1,375,000</h3><h3>Principal balances:</h3><h3>Tranche A $47 million</h3><h3>Tranche B $100 million</h3><h3>Tranche C $50 million</h3><h3 /><h3 /><h3>Explanation:</h3><h3>The approach in debts securitization is that the most senior tranche,tranche A in this question receives any payment received in excess of periodic payment of interest.</h3><h3>On that basis,the quarterly payments can be shared between the three tranches as follows:</h3><h3>Total quarterly payment received $8000,000</h3><h3>Tranche A interest $50m*9%*3/12 ($1,125,000) </h3><h3>Tranche B interest $100m*10%*3/12 ($2,500,000) </h3><h3>Tranche C interest $50m*11%*3/12 ($1,375,000) </h3><h3>Balance left $3,000,000</h3><h3>As earlier reiterated, the balance of $3 million would be used to redeem part of tranche A,hence in tranche A is $47 million($50m-$3m):</h3><h3>Principal balances:</h3><h3>Tranche A $47 million</h3><h3>Tranche B $100 million</h3><h3>Tranche C $50 million</h3>
In determining the fair value of the asset or liability the exit price should be used. A fair price means the price that the asset or liability would get when sold in the market. So, the pair price will be determined by calculating the market price of such goods or liabilities or at what rate these goods or liabilities will be sold in the market.
The entry price would not be the correct price as the asset or liability may have been bought by the company many years ago. So based on this, the price of these assets would have increased as in the case. Sometimes the prices of these assets would have also decreased. The same reason is applicable to liabilities also.
This is known as the appreciation and depreciation of assets and liabilities. So to remove the effect of this the fair value will be based only on the exit price.
1. Learn more about fair value here:
brainly.com/question/14294197
2. Learn more about market price here:
brainly.com/question/15866211
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Answer:
The correct answer is B. If there are 10 plants producing the total domestic consumption of a product and each plant is operating at minimum efficient scale, then each plant accounts for 10 percent of domestic consumption.
Explanation:
It is understood that the total consumption of a product is 100% of it. Therefore, as long as there are 10 plants that, producing at a minimum efficiency scale on an equal basis, cover this total consumption, the percentage of consumption that each plant produces will be 10%.
This is so because 100/10 = 10, provided that it is considered that the production is carried out equitably between each of the production plants.
