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nataly862011 [7]
3 years ago
15

1,200 tv; 10% discount

Mathematics
1 answer:
klio [65]3 years ago
5 0
Since you get 10% off, you only pay 90% of the price.
1200 x 0.90 = 1080

Therefore the price is $1080 before taxes.
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A researcher for an airline interviews all of the passengers on five randomly selected flights.
antoniya [11.8K]

Answer

Cluster sampling. See explanation below.

Step-by-step explanation:

For this case they not use random sampling since we are selecting people from flights. Because we select just 5 random flights.

Is not stratified sampling since we don't have strata clearly defined on this case, and other important thing is that in order to apply this method we need homogeneous strata groups and that's not satisfied on this case.

Is not convenience sampling because they NOT use a non probability method in order to select the people from the flights.

So then the only possible method is cluster sampling since we have clusters clearly defined (Passengers from the airlines), and we satisfy the condition of homogeneous characteristics on the clusters and an equal chance of being a part of the sample, since we are selecting RANDOMLY, the 5 flights to take the information.

6 0
3 years ago
Which inequality represents the sentence below?
dusya [7]
6 x minus 4 and start fraction 9 over 10
5 0
3 years ago
Read 2 more answers
A batch consists of 12 defective coils and 88 good ones. Find the probability of getting two good coils when two coils are rando
Allushta [10]

<u>Answer:</u>

The probability of getting two good coils when two coils are randomly selected if the first selection is replaced before the second is made is 0.7744  

<u>Solution:</u>

Total number of coils = number of good coils + defective coils = 88 + 12 = 100

p(getting two good coils for two selection) = p( getting 2 good coils for first selection ) \times p(getting 2 good coils for second selection)

p(first selection) = p(second selection) = \frac{\text { number of good coils }}{\text { total number of coils }}

Hence, p(getting 2 good coil for two selection) = \frac{88}{100} \times \frac{88}{100} =\bold{0.7744}

5 0
3 years ago
How much money will be in a bank account after 4 years if $8 is deposited at an interest rate of 5%?
stealth61 [152]

Answer:

$9.60

Step-by-step explanation:

The question above is a simple interest question.

The formula for the amount of money after a given period of time using simple interest is given as:

A = P(1 + rt)

Where

P = Initial Amount saved or invested = $8

R = Interest rate = 5%

t = Time in years = 4

Calculation:

First, converting R percent to r a decimal

r = R/100 = 5%/100 = 0.05 per year.

Solving our equation:

A = 8(1 + (0.05 × 4)) = 9.6

A = $9.60

The amount of money that will be in a bank account after 4 years is $9.60

7 0
3 years ago
PLEASE HELP ME
denis23 [38]

Answer:

(1) The possible outcomes are: X = {0, 1, 2, 3}.

(2) The number of times should Hartley spin a difference of 1 is 36.

(3) The number of times should Hartley spin a difference of 0 is 24.

Step-by-step explanation:

The number of sections on the spinner is 4 labelled as {1, 2, 3, 4}.

The total number of spins for each of the spinner is, <em>n</em> = 96.

(1)

The sample space of spinning both the spinners together are:

S = {(1, 1), (1, 2), (1, 3), (1, 4)

      (2, 1), (2, 2), (2, 3), (2, 4)

      (3, 1), (3, 2), (3, 3), (3, 4)

      (4, 1), (4, 2), (4, 3), (4, 4)}

Total = 16.

The possible outcomes are:

X = {0, 1, 2, 3}.

(2)

The sample space with the difference 1 are:

S₁ = {(1, 2), (2, 1), (2, 3), (3, 2), (3, 4), (4, 3)}

n (S₁) = 6

The probability of the difference 1 is:

P(\text{Diff}=1)=\frac{n(S_{1})}{N}=\frac{6}{16}=\frac{3}{8}

The spinners were spinner 96 times.

The expected number of times would Hartley spin a difference of 1 is:

E(\text{Diff}=1)=P(\text{Diff}=1)\times n\\\\=\frac{3}{8}\times 96\\\\=36

Thus, the number of times should Hartley spin a difference of 1 is 36.

(3)

The sample space with the difference 0 are:

S₂ = {(1, 1), (2, 2), (3, 3), (4, 4)}

n (S₂) = 4

The probability of the difference 0 is:

P(\text{Diff}=0)=\frac{n(S_{2})}{N}=\frac{4}{16}=\frac{1}{4}

The spinners were spinner 96 times.

The expected number of times would Hartley spin a difference of 0 is:

E(\text{Diff}=0)=P(\text{Diff}=0)\times n\\\\=\frac{1}{4}\times 96\\\\=24

Thus, the number of times should Hartley spin a difference of 0 is 24.

4 0
3 years ago
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