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Karolina [17]
3 years ago
5

If 2x – 3 + 3x = – 28, what is the value of x?

Mathematics
1 answer:
julsineya [31]3 years ago
5 0

Answer:

x= -14

Step-by-step explanation:

Isolate the variable by dividing each side by factors that don't contain the variable.

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A bag contains an unknown number of marbles. You know that P(red) = 1 and P(green) = 1. What can you conclude about how many mar
Nataly [62]

The number of marbles in the bag illustrates probability

The conclusion about the number of marbles in the bag is that the bag can only contain one type of marble

<h3>The number of marbles in the bag?</h3>

The probabilities are given as:

P(Red) = 1

P(Green) = 1

For a distribution, the sum of all probabilities must equal to 1.

This means that:

P(Red) + P(Green) = 1

So, we have:

1 + 1 = 1

This gives

2 = 1

The above equation is false because 2 does not equal to 1.

So, the conclusion about the number of marbles in the bag is that the bag can only contain one type of marble i.e. either red marbles are in the bag or blue marbles are in the bag

Read more about probability at:

brainly.com/question/251701

5 0
2 years ago
nventing is a difficult way to make money. Only 5% of new patents earn a substantial profit. A certain city has just had30 indep
Arlecino [84]

Answer:

P(X \geq 2) = 1-P(X

And we can find the individual probabilities using the probability mass function and we got:

P(X=0) = (30C0) (0.05)^0 (1-0.05)^{30-0} =0.2146

P(X=1) = (30C1) (0.05)^1 (1-0.05)^{30-1} = 0.3389

And replacing we got:

P(X \geq 2) = 1-P(X

Step-by-step explanation:

Previous concepts

The binomial distribution is a "DISCRETE probability distribution that summarizes the probability that a value will take one of two independent values under a given set of parameters. The assumptions for the binomial distribution are that there is only one outcome for each trial, each trial has the same probability of success, and each trial is mutually exclusive, or independent of each other".

Let X the random variable of interest, on this case we now that:

X \sim Binom(n=30, p=0.05)

The probability mass function for the Binomial distribution is given as:

P(X)=(nCx)(p)^x (1-p)^{n-x}

Where (nCx) means combinatory and it's given by this formula:

nCx=\frac{n!}{(n-x)! x!}

Solution to the problem

For this case we want this probability:

P(X \geq 2)

And we can use the complement rule and we got:

P(X \geq 2) = 1-P(X

And we can find the individual probabilities using the probability mass function and we got:

P(X=0) = (30C0) (0.05)^0 (1-0.05)^{30-0} =0.2146

P(X=1) = (30C1) (0.05)^1 (1-0.05)^{30-1} = 0.3389

And replacing we got:

P(X \geq 2) = 1-P(X

3 0
3 years ago
Solve the system of equations by substitution. 3/8 x + 1/3 y =17/24 and <br> x + 7y = 8
goblinko [34]
\left \{ {{ \frac{3}{8}x+ \frac{1}{3}y  = \frac{17}{14} } \atop {x+7y=8}} \right.

To solve this system by substitution, first isolate x in the second equation.

x+7y=8
x+7y-7y=8-7y
x=8-7y

Now, plug this expression (8-7y) for x in the top equation to solve for y.

\frac{3}{8} (8-7y)+ \frac{1}{3} y= \frac{17}{14}
3- \frac{21}{8} y+ \frac{1}{3} y= \frac{17}{24}
72-63y+8y=17
72-55y=17
-55y=17-72
-55y=-55
y=1

Now that you have y, plug it into the second equation and solve for x.

x+7y=8
x+7(1)=8
x+7=8
x=1

Last step is to plug your x- and y-values in to both equations to check your work.

\frac{3}{8} (1)+ \frac{1}{3} y= \frac{17}{24}

\frac{3}{8} * \frac{3}{3} = \frac{9}{24} ;  \frac{1}{3} * \frac{8}{8} = \frac{8}{24}

\frac{9}{24} + \frac{8}{24} = \frac{17}{24}  <--True

1+7(1)=8
1+7=8   <--True

Answer:
x=1 \\ y=1
5 0
3 years ago
Please help pleaseeee <br> ----------<br> / 0.09 Type interger or decimal.
Mandarinka [93]

Answer:

0.09 = decimal

3 0
3 years ago
Read 2 more answers
HELP FAST PLEASEEEEE
White raven [17]

Answer:

The third one

Step-by-step explanation:

3 0
3 years ago
Read 2 more answers
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