You have 5 different chances that you can spin it less than 3
Given:
loan amount - $204,000
interest rate per annum - 4.5%
4.5% / 12 months = 0.375% per month
3/27 - 3 years to pay, 27 years amortization
27 years * 12 months = 324 months
Using the attached formula to compute for the monthly amortization:
A = 204,000 * [0.00375(1+0.00375)³²⁴] / [(1+0.00375)³²⁴ - 1]
A = 1,088.79
Keep in mind that there are slight differences in figures due to the decimal places used.
FV = 204,000(1+0.00375)³⁶ - 1,088.79 {[(1+0.00375)³⁶ - 1] / 0.00375}
FV = 233,426.56 - 41,885.72
FV = 191,540.84
The closest to my answer is Choice B. <span>
B. $190,245.98</span>
Answer:
15t
Step-by-step explanation:
10t+9t+6t-10t
19t-4t
15t
Answer:
D.
Step-by-step explanation:
We have been given that the probability of an event is 3/10.
To find the odds of the same event we will use formula:
Dividing a fraction with another fraction is same as multiplying the 1st fraction by the reciprocal of second fraction.
Therefore, the odds of the same event is and option D is the correct choice.
This fair seems like 3 autonomous occasions to me. At the end of the day, you do the adjustment and, on the off chance that it doesn't meet details, you do it once more. On the off chance that regardless it doesn't meet details, you do it a third time. At that point you quit, I figure, and attempt to make sense of why you can't get the darn thing right.
In this way, in any case, you have a .6 possibility of getting the alignment right and a .4 chance you have to rehash it. The solution to your question is the likelihood you don't have three sequential disappointments, which is beneath:
1 - .4 x .4 x .4 = 1 - .064, or 93.6%