Answer:
M2 decreases and M1 increases.
Explanation:
M1 and M2 are measures of money.
M1 is the narrowest definition of money. It includes currency, travellers check, demand deposit and other checkable deposits.
M2 includes M1 , small denomination time deposit, money market deposit and other assets that can easily be changed into cash easily and at a very little cost.
M3 includes M2, large domination time deposit and less liquid assets.
If $125,000 is withdrawn from the money market funds ,m2 reduces because money market fund is a component of m2.
M1 increases because $125,000 is converted to cash.
I hope my answer helps you.
Answer: D. A & C
Explanation:
A long term liability is one that is due to be paid in a period longer than a year. The loan is due in less than a year so the only way to classify it as a long term liability is to make it a loan that will extend past a year. This can be done through refinancing which is to replace the current loan with another loan.
Karin's company therefore would need to demonstrate that the obligation can be refinanced on a long-term basis by them and they must also have the intention to do so as well.
Answer:
A. that involves double-counting.
Explanation:
Imagine a company that produces furniture. If we would include the wood, the nails, the wood paint, etc., were included in the calculation plus the furniture itself, you would be double-counting the cost of the manufactured furniture. If you consider waste materials, then you would be adding even more costs. That is why you only consider finished goods.
Answer:
CMR: 52% --> each dollar of sales generates 52 cent of contribution
VCR: 48% --> 48 cent per dollar of sales are cost
BEPu: 10,000 units will pay up the cost to purchasethis units and the fixed cost for the business.
BEPs: $ 250,000 in sales pay up both, fixed and varible operating cost.
Explanation:
selling price per hat: $ 25
variable cost per hat: $ 12
Contribution per unit $ 13
Contribution Ratio:
13/25 = 0.52
Variable cost Ratio:
12/25 = 0.48
Fixed cost: 130,000
Break even point:
dollars of sales BEP: 250,000
units sold to pay up variable and fixed cost: 10,000
Answer:
Price to be paid now = $52.89
Explanation:
<em>The Dividend Valuation Model is a technique used to value the worth of an asset. According to this model, the worth of an asset is the sum of the present values of its future cash flows discounted at the required rate of return. </em>
T<em>he stock would be held for just a period, hence we would use the single period return model. This is given as follows:</em>
Price now = D/(1+r) + P×(1+r)
Dividend , r - rate of return, P -year-end price of stock
Dividend = 4.35, r-16%, P- 57
Price = 4.35/(1.16) + 57/(1.16)= $52.89
Price to be paid now = $52.89
