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madam [21]
3 years ago
14

A company is considering purchasing a machine that costs $400,000 and is estimated to have no salvage value at the end of its 8-

year useful life. If the machine is purchased, annual revenues are expected to be $100,000 and annual operating expenses exclusive of depreciation expense are expected to be $38,000. The straight-line method of depreciation would be used. The cash payback period on the machine is Question 9 options: 8.0 years. 7.5 years. 6.5 years. 3.2 years
Business
1 answer:
AveGali [126]3 years ago
4 0

Answer:

6.5 years

Explanation:

Cost of Asset/Net Income = $400,000/Net Income

Net Income = Revenue - Operating expenses (excluding depreciation)

= $100,000 - $38,000 = $62,000

=$400,000/$62,000

=6.45

=6.5 years

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John Chong is an inexperienced entrepreneur in global business. He wants to sell his product, Zulu doll, a toy for kids below th
SSSSS [86.1K]

Answer:

c. identification of the basic appeal for markets

Explanation:

As John is an inexperienced businessman and wants to sell his Zulu doll product, a toy for children who have less than 8 years in every part of the world and want to keep the cost low

So first thing he should do is feasible study whether his product is feasible or not and then identify the market with respect to the price, quality, competitors, etc so that he get a good idea

7 0
4 years ago
Coffee Corporation has 2,000 shares of common stock outstanding. John owns 700 of the shares, John’s grandfather owns 100 shares
nekit [7.7K]

Answer:

1,000 shares

Explanation:

The 318 attribution rule states that stock owned directly or indirectly by a partnership is considered to be owned by any partner that owns 5% or more in the business.

This is relevant to family owned businesses and is a way to mark out principal owners of a business in order to avoid tax evasion and fraud.

In this scenario John directly owns 700 of the outstanding shares. But according to the 318 attribution rule, since he he is a 50% partner he owns half of the outstanding 2,000 shares. That is 1,000 shares.

7 0
3 years ago
The supply curve of labor is upward sloping if:____________
horsena [70]

Answer:

Option A, “the substitution effect dominates the income effect” is correct.

Explanation:

If the real wage increases then the opportunity cost for leisure will also increase. Therefore, an increase in real wages and a rise in the opportunity cost of leisure induce labor to supply more workforce or labor force. This is known as the substitution effect. Moreover, when this substitution effect is greater than the income effect then the supply curve for labor is upward sloping.

6 0
4 years ago
Susan Inc. has been disappointed with the Willow Division's performance over the last few years and has decided that it would be
labwork [276]

Answer:

$2,560,000

Explanation:

impairment loss = division's book value - division's fair market value = $3,080,000 - $2,320,000 = $760,000

Assets held for sale are no longer depreciated, but they must be recorded at lower value between carrying cost and fair market value. Since the fair market value is lower than carrying value, then an impairment loss results.

loss on discontinued operations = loss from operations 2019 + impairment loss = $1,800,000 + $760,000 = $2,560,000

3 0
3 years ago
On January 1, 2017, Eagle borrows $16,000 cash by signing a four-year, 5% installment note. The note requires four equal total p
goblinko [34]

Answer:

<u>Issuance - January 1, 2017</u>

Cash $16,000 (debit)

Note Payable $16,000 (credit)

<u>December 31, 2017</u>

Interest Expense $800 (debit)

Note Payable $3,712.19 (debit)

Cash $4,512.19 (credit)

<u>December 31, 2018</u>

Interest Expense $614.39 (debit)

Note Payable $3,897.80 (debit)

Cash $4,512.19 (credit)

<u>December 31, 2019</u>

Interest Expense $419.50 (debit)

Note Payable $4,092.69 (debit)

Cash $4,512.19 (credit)

<u>December 31, 2020</u>

Interest Expense $214.87 (debit)

Note Payable $4,297.32 (debit)

Cash $4,512.19 (credit)

Explanation:

The Loan Amortization Schedule is most appropriate way to solve all parts of this problem.

The first step to construction of the Amortization Schedule is to determine the payments made annually, PMT (interest and principal).

Using a Financial calculator, this can be determined as ;

Pv = $16,000

r = 5%

n = 4

Fv = $0

p/yr = 1

Pmt = ?

Thus PMT is $4,512.19.

Amortisation Schedule (Extracted from Financial Calculator)

<u>2017</u>

Principle Payment = $3,712.19

Interest Payment = $800

Balance =  $12,287.81

Accounting Entries :

Interest Expense $800 (debit)

Note Payable $3,712.19 (debit)

Cash $4,512.19 (credit)

<u>2018</u>

Principle Payment = $3,897.80

Interest Payment = $614.39

Balance =  $8,390

Accounting Entries :

Interest Expense $614.39 (debit)

Note Payable $3,897.80 (debit)

Cash $4,512.19 (credit)

<u>2019</u>

Principle Payment = $4,092.69

Interest Payment = $419.50

Balance =  $4,297.32

Accounting Entries :

Interest Expense $419.50 (debit)

Note Payable $4,092.69 (debit)

Cash $4,512.19 (credit)

<u>2020</u>

Principle Payment = $4,297.32

Interest Payment = $214.87

Balance =  $0

Accounting Entries :

Interest Expense $214.87 (debit)

Note Payable $4,297.32 (debit)

Cash $4,512.19 (credit)

8 0
3 years ago
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