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QveST [7]
3 years ago
15

If f(x)=sinx−1/cos2x, then limx→π2f(x) is equivalent to which of the following?

Mathematics
1 answer:
Harrizon [31]3 years ago
8 0

Answer:

2

Step-by-step explanation:

Given g(x) = sin(x)-1/cos2(x), we are to find the limit if the function g(x) as g(x) tends to π/2

Substituting π/2 into the function

lim x-->π/2 sin(x)-1/cos 2(x)

= sin(π/2) - 1/cos(2)(π/2)

= 1 - 1/cosπ

= 1- 1/-1

= 1 -(-1)

= 1+1

= 2

Hence the limit of the function h(x) = sin(x)-1/cos2(x) as x--> π/2 is 2

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Answer:

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Answer:

Please find attached sketch of the path of the ball, having plot area and plot points, created with MS Excel

Step-by-step explanation:

Question;

The equation representing the path of the ball obtained from a similar question posted online are;

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The equation of the path of the ball in vertex form, y = a·(x - 2)² + k, is h₂ = -4·(t - 2)² + 36, where, by comparison, we have;

The vertex of the ball = The maximum height reached by the ball  = (h, k) = (2, 36)

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The sketch of the path of the ball created with MS Excel, used in plotting the vertex, the initial value and the root points of the parabola, through which the ball passes and joining of the points with a 'smooth' curve is attached

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