Answer:
.01%*
Step-by-step explanation:
Individually, they both have a rate of failure of 1%.
.01 x .01 = .0001
Therefore they have a combined probability of failure of .01%
*Disclaimer!!
I am not the best at this area in math so I would still reference against someone else's answer, but this is my best effort :)
If a binomial x-a is a factor of a polynomial p(x), then p(a)=0.
x+2 is a factor of p(x)=x³-6x²+kx+10, so p(-2)=0.
If you use a calculator you would get the answer 8. Because 8x8x8=512