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Aleks [24]
3 years ago
13

Why does methane have a low boiling point?

Physics
2 answers:
svlad2 [7]3 years ago
4 0
The molecules held together are to weak so the substance melt and boil at low points.
SashulF [63]3 years ago
4 0
The molecules are held together by weak forces so the substances have low boiling points. It doesnt have electricity.
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So, RCF, or relative centrifugal force should be equal to RCF = <img src="https://tex.z-dn.net/?f=11%2C18%2Ar%2A%28RPM%2F1000%29
zysi [14]

After plugging all the data into the equation, the result of the relative centrifugal force (RCF)  is measured in terms of g.

<h3>What is relative centrifugal force?</h3>

The relative centrifugal force (RCF) or the g force is the radial force generated by the spinning rotor as expressed relative to the earth's gravitational force.

RCF = ac/g

where;

  • ac is centripetal acceleration
  • g is acceleration due to gravity

RCF = \frac{\omega ^2 r}{g} = 1.118\times 10^{-5} \ (RPM)^2 r = 11.18r\ (RPM/1000)^2

where;

  • r is radius in cm

<h3>For example, </h3>

Find the maximum RCF of the JS-4.2 rotor can be obtained from its maximum speed (4200 rpm) and its rmax (250 mm);

RCF = 11.18 \times 25\ cm \times (\frac{4200 \ RPM}{1000} )^2 = 4,930.3 \times g

Thus, after plugging all the data into the equation, the result is measured in terms of g.

Learn more about relative centrifugal force here: brainly.com/question/26887699

#SPJ1

6 0
2 years ago
A beam of electrons moving in the x-direction enters a region where a uniform 208-G magnetic field points in the y-direction. Th
GREYUIT [131]

Answer:

1.26\cdot 10^7 m/s

Explanation:

When a charged particle moves perpendicularly to a magnetic field, the force it experiences is:

F=qvB

where

q is the charge

v is its velocity

B is the strength of the magnetic field

Moreover, the force acts in a direction perpendicular to the motion of the charge, so it acts as a centripetal force; therefore we can write:

qvB=m\frac{v^2}{r}

where

m is the mass of the particle

r is the radius of the orbit of the particle

The equation can be re-arranges as

v=\frac{qBr}{m}

where in this problem we have:

q=1.6\cdot 10^{-19}C is the magnitude of the charge of the electron

B=208 G=208\cdot 10^{-4}T is the strength of the magnetic field

The beam penetrates 3.45 mm into the field region: therefore, this is the radius of the orbit,

r=3.45 mm = 3.45\cdot 10^{-3} m

m=9.11\cdot 10^{-31} kg is the mass of the electron

So, the electron's speed is

v=\frac{(1.6\cdot 10^{-19})(208\cdot 10^{-4})(3.45\cdot 10^{-3})}{9.11\cdot 10^{-31}}=1.26\cdot 10^7 m/s

6 0
3 years ago
Teeth are an example of which type of simple machine? lever wedge inclined plane pulley
andreev551 [17]

Answer: Teeth is an example of a wedge.

Explanation :

the machines that make our work easier are called simple machines. Some machines can be compound because they are a combination of more than two simple machines. For example, stapler.

Teeth are an example of a wedge. It is a simple machine which consists of two inclined planes. It is used to split apart objects.  

The mechanical advantage of a wedge is more than 1.

So, the correct option is (b) " Wedge".

3 0
3 years ago
Read 2 more answers
A car travels east at a constant velocity. The net force on the car is:
Scrat [10]
F=ma
As velocity is constant, a=0
So, F=0

Hope this helps!
6 0
3 years ago
Use the work-energy theorem to determine the force required to stop a 1000 kg car moving at a speed of 20.0 m/s if there is a di
Vlad1618 [11]

Answer:

4.44 kN in the opposite direction of acceleration.

Explanation:

Given that, the initial speed of the car is, u=20m/s

And the mass of the car is, m=1000 kg

The total distance covered by the car before stop, s=45m

And the final speed of the car is, u=0m/s

Now initial kinetic energy is,

KE_{i}=\frac{1}{2}mu^{2}

Substitute the value of u and m in the above equation, we get

KE_{i}=\frac{1}{2}(1000kg)\times (20)^{2}\\KE_{i}=20000J

Now final kinetic energy is,

KE_{f}=\frac{1}{2}mv^{2}

Substitute the value of v and m in the above equation, we get

KE_{f}=\frac{1}{2}(1000kg)\times (0)^{2}\\KE_{i}=0J

Now applying work energy theorem.

Work done= change in kinetic energy

Therefore,

F.S=KE_{f}-KE_{i}\\F\times 45=(0-200000)J\\F=\frac{-200000J}{45}\\ F=-4444.44N\\F=-4.44kN

Here, the force is negative because the force and acceleration in the opposite direction.

6 0
3 years ago
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