Answer:
None of the above(i.e., all of the above statements are 'True' After the 2 for 1 stock split).
Explanation:
Stock split is a way of increasing total of shares a company's shareholders have while proportionately reducing the share price per unit.In essence , it is about re-denominating the shares of a company.
A 2-1 stock split means for every one share that shareholders possess previously.they now have 2 in place of 1.
In other words,the shareholders now have 2,000 shares in all(2/1*1000)
The par value now=$1*1/2=$0.50
The market price now=$8*1/2=$4
Without mincing words,the last option is the correct answer.
Answer:
- Melba's adjusted basis for the land at the Acquisition date is $625000
- Melba's adjusted basis for the land one year later is $645000
Explanation:
The adjusted basis for a property/land is the net cost of the property after adjusting for factors that might attract tax as related to the land
The adjusted basis for the land at the acquisition date is the net cost of the land at the acquisition date which will be ( $225000 + $400000 ) because that was the net cost of the Land at the date of acquisition before an agreement was later reached by Melba requiring him to pay $400000 plus an interest of 5%
Hence the adjusted basis for the land one year later will be
= ( $225000 + $400000 ) + 5% of $400000
= ( $625000 ) + $20000
= $645000
The liquidity coverage ratio, which is measured under the Basel III
guidelines, is the ratio of a bank's liquid assets to its projected net cash
outflow.
<h3>What is Asset? </h3>
Assets are referred to as items owned by an entity which can later be used
to meet debts and other obligations.
Liquidity coverage ratio can be measured by calculating the the ratio of a
bank's liquid assets to its projected net cash outflow.
Read more about Liquidity here brainly.com/question/921670
Answer:
The amount of effective interest expense that chaco will record in the first six months is $14,375
Explanation:
interest payment that will be first made is on June 30, Year 1. Therefore, the outstanding balance used in the calculation is the issue price.
The interest expense is calculated by these formula
Interest expense = Effective semiannual interest rate × Outstanding balance
Interest expense = (8% ÷ 2) × $359,378 = $14,375
So the interest expense is gotten as %14,375
Answer:
the increase in additional paid in capital is $13,000
Explanation:
The computation of the increase in additional paid in capital is shown below:
= (Average price per share - par value of shares) × number of shares
= ($21 - $8) × 1,000
= $13 × 1,000
= $13,000
hence, the increase in additional paid in capital is $13,000
