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4 years ago

How might atoms of the same element vary?

2 answers:

7 0

Atoms of the same element can vary based on their atomic masses, basically the atomic mass units or amu. If there are isotopes of a given element present, then the atoms of all the elements posses the same atomic number and thus the same element, but can vary based on their atomic mass, due to the different number of neutrons that corresponding atom has. Isotopes are atoms of the same element, but with different number of neutrons and ultimately different atomic mass.

Alex777 [14]4 years ago

4 0

It may be an ion. An ion loses or gain electrons.

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What causes attraction between molecules of liquid water?

Nezavi [6.7K]

<span>The intermolecular attractions are the caause of attraction between the molecules of liquid water. These intermolecular bonding interactions in water is due to Hydrogen bonding. The hydrogen bonding is in between O and H atoms.</span>

3 0

3 years ago

A standard baseball has a circumference of apoximately 23cm. If a baseball had the same mass per unit volume as a neutron or a p

BigorU [14]

Baseball, neutrons, and protons are all perfect spheres.

Circumference of the baseball, $L_{\text {ball }}=23 \mathrm{~cm}$ .

mass of the proton or neutron, $m_{\mathrm{p}}=10^{-27} \mathrm{~kg}$

diameter of the proton or neutron, $r_{0}=10^{-15} \mathrm{~m}$

Mass per unit volume is the definition of a material's density. The density equation is

$\rho=\frac{M}{V} .$

Here, M is the mass of the material, V is the volume, and $\rho$ is the density of the material.

We know that formula for the volume of a sphere having diameter d is $V=\frac{\pi d^{3}}{6}$.$

You may obtain this result by plugging this number into the proton/neutron density equation:

$\rho_{0}=\frac{m_{0}}{\left(\frac{\pi d_{0}^{3}}{6}\right)}$

By replacing the variables in the aforementioned equation with their values, you will obtain

$\begin{aligned}\rho_{\circ} &=\frac{10^{-27}}{\left(\frac{\pi\left(10^{-15}\right)^{3}}{6}\right)} \\&=1.91 \times 10^{18} \mathrm{kgm}^{-3}\end{aligned}$

The formula for calculating a circle's circumference with diameter d is $L=\pi d$.$

Using this, you get the diameter of the baseball:

$\begin{aligned}d_{\text {ball }} &=\frac{L_{\text {ball }}}{\pi} \\&=\frac{23}{\pi} \\&=7.32 \mathrm{~cm} \\&=0.0732 \mathrm{~m}\end{aligned}$

The volume of the baseball may be calculated using the formula for the volume of a sphere:

$\begin{aligned}V_{\text {ball }} &=\frac{\pi d_{\text {ball }}^{3}}{6} \\&=\frac{\pi \times(0.0732)^{3}}{6} \\&=2.054 \times 10^{-4} \mathrm{~m}^{3}\end{aligned}$

The mass of the baseball is determined by the concept of density if you suppose that its density is equal to that of a proton or neutron.

$m_{\text {ball }}=\rho_{\circ} \cdot V_{\text {ball }}$

Here, $\rho_{\circ}$ is the density of the proton/neutron.

By replacing the variables in the aforementioned equation with their values, you will obtain

$\begin{aligned}m_{\text {ball }} &=\left(1.91 \times 10^{18}\right) \cdot\left(2.054 \times 10^{-4}\right) \\&=3.92 \times 10^{14} \mathrm{~kg}\end{aligned}$

Therefore, if the density of the baseball was equal to that of the neutron/proton, then its mass would be $3.92 \times 10^{14} \mathrm{~kg}$.$

Learn more about density brainly.com/question/15164682

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7 0

2 years ago

Consider the following 3 cases. (1) A block initially at rest on a floor is given a quick push by a hand. (2) The hand does not

jek_recluse [69]

Answer:

(1) The block isn't moving, despite the hand's force on it.

The net force on the block is zero.
The acceleration of the block is also zero.

(2) The block is gradually slowing down as it slides across the floor.

The acceleration of the block points in the opposite direction of the block's movement (i.e., the opposite direction of the block's velocity.)
The net force on the block points in the opposite direction of the block's movement. (Same direction as the block's acceleration.)

(3) Once again, the block is not moving.

The net force on the block is zero.
The acceleration of the block is also zero.

Explanation:

By Newton's Second Law, the net force on an object is in the same direction as its acceleration. Since this question said a lot about the object's motion, the direction of the object's acceleration might be easier to find than its net force.

The acceleration of an object is the rate of change of its velocity over time.

In this situation, the velocity of the object is zero, which is itself a constant. As a result, the rate of change of the object's velocity over time would be zero. Hence, the acceleration of the object would also be equal to zero. The zero vector doesn't have a specific direction.

By Newton's Second Law, the net force on the object is proportional to its acceleration. As a result, the net force on the object in this case would also be equal to zero. What about the hand's force on the block? The friction and normal force from the ground balances that force while the block hasn't yet started to move.

The object is slowing down over time. In other words, its velocity is decreasing over time. When a scalar value is decreasing, its rate of change would be negative. However, since velocity and acceleration are vectors, the acceleration of the object would be in the opposite direction of its velocity.

The net force on an object is in the same direction as its acceleration. As a result, the net force on this block in this case would also be in the opposite direction of the block's velocity.

Similar to the first situation, since the velocity of the block is zero (a constant,) its acceleration would be equal to zero. Since the net force on an object is proportional to its acceleration, the net force on this block would also be equal to zero.

7 0

3 years ago

Which of the following shows the correct order of the body systems involved in this response?

dem82 [27]

B. Circulatory, respiratory, nervous

7 0

4 years ago

Two particles with different charges are on the same equipotential line. Do these particles have the same electric potential ene

emmainna [20.7K]

Answer:

both charges will have different potential energies that will depend upon the charge magnitude.

Explanation:

It is given that both the charges are on the same equipotential line which means the potential V at which the two charges are is same.

Now the potential energy of a charge at potential V is given by

q×V where q is the charge value

Thus Higher the charge value for a given value of potential , higher will be the potential energy

Thus the larger charge will have higher potential energy and not the same.

6 0

4 years ago