Answer:
9
Step-by-step explanation:
18 ÷ 6 × [1] + 6
18 ÷ 6 + 6
3 + 6
9
3000x1.12
=3360
Therefore, Frankie will have £3360 percent chance for at the end if the time period
Answer:
a) (+) × (?) = (+)
(?) = (+)
b) (-) × (+) = ?
? = (-)
c) (?) × (-) = ?
? is undefined
Step-by-step explanation:
a) (+) × (?) = (+)
From the given equation in the question, by dividing both side of the equation by (+), we have;
((+) × (?))/(+) = (+)/(+)
(?) = (+)/(+) = (+)
Therefore, we have;
(+) × (+) = (+)
(?) = (+)
b) (-) × (+) = ?
From the given equation in the question we apply the operation rules as follows;
(-) × (-) = (+)
(-) × (+) = (-)
Therefore;
(-) × (+) = ? = (-)
? = (-)
c) (?) × (-) = ?
From the rules of multiplication, we have;
(-) × (-) = (+)
(+) × (-) = (-)
Therefore, when (?) = (-), ? = +, from which we have;
(?) ≠ ?, which is an error
Similarly, when (?) = (+), ? = -, therefore, (?) and ?, always changes sign
Therefore, the equation, (?) × (-) = ?, is undefined.
