No it is not possible since there can be dominated or recessive alleles involved. A heterozygous for a specific gene can display the same phenotype as a homozygous for the same gene.
1) Mutations are caused by changes in nucleotide bases. these altered base formed different amino acid depending upon nucleotide base sequence that code specific amino acid. ... even though some mutations, can have a more effect on amino acid coding, which can affect what kind of proteins are produced.
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Answer:
gonads, ovaries and testes
Explanation:
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Answer:
The fraction of heterozygous individuals in the population is 32/100 that equals 0.32 which is the genotipic proportion for these endividuals.
Explanation:
According to Hardy-Weinberg, the allelic frequencies in a locus are represented as p and q, referring to the alleles. The genotypic frequencies after one generation are p² (Homozygous for allele p), 2pq (Heterozygous), q² (Homozygous for the allele q). Populations in H-W equilibrium will get the same allelic frequencies generation after generation. The sum of these allelic frequencies equals 1, this is p + q = 1.
In the exposed example, the r-6 allelic frequency is 0,2. This means that if r-6=0.2, then the other allele frequency (R) is=0.8, and the sum of both the allelic frequencies equals one. This is:
p + q = 1
r-6 + R = 1
0.2 + 0.8 = 1
Then, the genotypic proportion for the homozygous individuals RR is 0.8 ² = 0.64
The genotypic proportion for the homozygous individuals r-6r-6 is 0.2² = 0.04
And the genotypic proportion for heterozygous individuals Rr-6 is 2xRxr-6 = 2 x 0.8 x 0.2 = 0.32
