Ask question

Ask question

All categories

wolverine [178]

3 years ago

15

A force is applied to an object at rest with a mass of 100kg. A force twice as large is applied to another object at rest with a

mass of 100kg. What differences in their motion would you observe? Explain your reasoning.

1 answer:

sukhopar [10]3 years ago

7 0

According to Newton's second law. £Fext=m.a
then the acceleration of the second object will be twice as that of the first since the mass of both objects is equal(100kg) and the force F is doubled. Therefore the acceleration of object 2 will be more than that of object 1 (double)

hope this helps.

best regards

You might be interested in

If the frequency of sound is doubled, how will its speed change? how will its wavelength change?

eimsori [14]

From the given equation we can deduce what changes will occur if the frequency of the sound is doubled

V= f (λ)

Speed = frequency. Wavelength

When the frequency is doubled, speed will not change. Because speed depends on factors like temperature, air pressure, density of the gas. Since all these factors are unchanged thus speed will remain unchanged

Frequency is the number of waves produced per second. Frequency and wavelength are inversely proportional .Thus, if the frequency is doubled the wavelength would be halved.

6 0

3 years ago

The type of force measured by grocery store spring scale is

alexandr402 [8]

Answer:

Weight

Explanation:

The spring balance is used to measure weight of an object.

8 0

3 years ago

PLZ HELP ASAP WILL GIVE BRAINLIEST!!!

igomit [66]

the answer is the forth one treatment of cancer

3 0

4 years ago

Read 2 more answers

Aloop of wire of area 71 cm^2 is placed with its plane parallel to a 16 mt magnetic field. the loop is then rotated so that its

kkurt [141]

Answer:

Approximately 1.62 × 10⁻⁴ V.

Explanation:

The average EMF in the coil is equal to

$\displaystyle \frac{\text{Final Magnetic Flux} - \text{Initial Magnetic Flux}}{2}$ ,

Why does this formula work?

By Faraday's Law of Induction, the EMF $\epsilon$ induced in a coil (one loop) is equal to the rate of change in the magnetic flux $\Phi$ through the coil.

$\displaystyle \epsilon(t) = \frac{d}{dt}(\Phi(t))$ .

Finding the average EMF in the coil is similar to finding the average velocity.

$\displaystyle \text{Average}\; \epsilon = \frac{1}{t}\int_0^t \epsilon(t)\cdot dt$ .

However, by the Fundamental Theorem of Calculus, integration reverts the action of differentiation. That is:

$\displaystyle \int_0^{t} \epsilon(t)\cdot dt = \int_0^{t} \frac{d}{dt}\Phi(t)\cdot dt = \Phi(t) - \Phi(0)$ .

Hence the equation

$\displaystyle \text{Average}\; \epsilon = \frac{1}{t}\int_0^t \epsilon(t)\cdot dt = \frac{\Phi(t)- \Phi(0)}{t}$ .

Note that information about the constant term in the original function will be lost. However, since this integral is a definite one, the constant term in $\Phi(t)$ won't matter.

Apply this formula to this question. Note that $\Phi$ , the magnetic flux through the coil, can be calculated with the equation

$\Phi = B \cdot A \cdot N \; \sin{\theta}$ .

For this question,

$B = \rm 16\; mT = 16\times 10^{-3}\; T$ is the strength of the magnetic field.
$A = \rm 71\; cm^{2} = 71\times \left(10^{-2}\right)^2 \; m^{2}$ is the area of the coil.
$N = 1$ is the number of loops in the coil.
$\theta$ is the angle between the field lines and the coil.
At $\rm 0\;s$ , the field lines are parallel to the coil, $\theta = 0^{\circ}$ .
At $\rm 0.7\; s$ , the field lines are perpendicular to the coil, $\displaystyle \theta = 90^{\circ}$ .

Initial flux: $\Phi(0)= 0$ .

Final flux: $\Phi(0.7) = \rm 1.1136\times 10^{-4}\; Wb$ .

Average EMF, which is the same as the average rate of change in flux:

$\displaystyle \frac{\Phi(0.7) - \Phi(0)}{0.7} \approx\rm 1.62\times 10^{-4}\; V$ .

8 0

3 years ago

Which phrase best describes a machine?

Nastasia [14]

Answer:

All of the above.

Explanation:

All Machines make work easier.

They can move objects.

They have multiple parts.

And the use energy.

5 0

3 years ago

Read 2 more answers