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marissa [1.9K]
3 years ago
6

WILL GIVE BRAINLIEST FOR FASTEST AND CORRECT ANSWER! ANSWER NOW!

Mathematics
2 answers:
jeyben [28]3 years ago
8 0

Answer:

112

Step-by-step explanation:

14 miles makes up 11/24 - 1/3 = 1/8 of the total route. The total route is 8*(14 miles) = 112 miles.

aniked [119]3 years ago
6 0

The total distance of the route is 112miles.

Step-by-step explanation:

Let us consider the total distance of the route to be 'y'.

Given that,

The distance from Boston to the passengers station = (1/3) y

The passenger got down at a station after beyond his station which is 14 miles away and the remaining route from that station is (13/24) y

So the travelled route = y - (13/24) y

= (11/24) y

The travelled route is from Boston to a station beyond 14miles of his station.

We can write the above as,

(11/24) y = (1/3) y + 14

(11/24) y - (1/3) y =14

(11y - 8y) /24 = 14

3y/24 = 14

y/8 = 14

y = 14 x 8

y = 112 miles

The total distance of the route is 112 miles

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bixtya [17]
Y=1.09(x-1)+1.49  where y is cost and x is in pounds we could further operate:

y=1.09x-1.09+1.49

y=1.09x+0.4 (note that the domain is x≥1)
5 0
4 years ago
Find the mode(s) for the given sample data.
ryzh [129]

Answer:

4.9 & 4.2

Step-by-step explanation:

First, we will have to define mode,

 

“Mode is the most frequently occurring value of the given data.”

The value with the greatest frequency is called mode. In order to find mode, we have to skim through the data. The value which is repeated most is the mode of the given data. A data can have more than one modes.

For the above data,

4.9 is repeated 3 times.

4.2 is repeated 3 times.

These both numbers have highest frequency in the data.

So the modes are 4.9 and 4.2 ..  

4 0
4 years ago
Read 2 more answers
Which theorem proves that MNO = QPO?<br>A. SAA<br>B. SSS<br>C. ASA<br>D. AAA​
slega [8]

Answer:

ASA

Step-by-step explanation:

<M is congruent to <Q

MO is congruent to QO

<MON is congruent to <QPO by vertical angles

That gives you ASA (angle-side-angle).

6 0
3 years ago
Xy′ = √(1 − y2 ), y(1) = 0
tigry1 [53]

Answer:

y=sin(ln(x))

Step-by-step explanation:

First, we have to order the terms as follows and express y' as dy / dx:

x*\frac{dy}{dx} =\sqrt{(1-y^{2} )} \\\frac{x}{dx}=\frac{dy}\sqrt{(1-y^{2} )}}\\\frac{dx}{x}=\frac{dy}{\sqrt{(1-y^{2} )} }

Then, we have to integrate

\int{\frac{dx}{x}=\int{\frac{dy}{\sqrt{(1-y^{2} )} }

with this solution after integration:

ln(x)+C1=arcsin(y)+C2

Then, we have to reorder

arcsin(y)=ln(x)+C

and applied Sin function on both sides

sin(arcsin(y))=sin(ln(x)+C)\\y=sin(ln(x)+C)

To define the value of C, we use the known point y(1)=0 and replace in the equation

y=sin(ln(x)+C)\\0=sin(ln(1)+C)\\0=sin(0+C)\\0=sin(C)\\C=arcsin(0)\\C=0

The function that proves that differential equation is

y=sin(ln(x))

6 0
3 years ago
...........................help
slavikrds [6]

Yeah the answer is B

Step-by-step explanation:

it is correct

because1609.35×5=8046.75

5 0
2 years ago
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