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r-ruslan [8.4K]
4 years ago
6

Which of the following circumstances would likely make completing the square th

Mathematics
1 answer:
svet-max [94.6K]4 years ago
3 0

Answer:

The leading coefficient is 1 and the linear term coefficient is an even number

Step-by-step explanation:

Leading coefficient must be one for the application of completing square method. If the completing square is not one than we must apply other methods like Ac method, quadratic formula to solve the equation. To solve the equation with completing square the numerical value must be on other side of the equation. In this method we multiply linear term’s coefficient with one-half and square it therefore, completing square is suitable method for the equation having leading coefficient is 1 and linear coefficient is even.

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Exercise 2.2.5. Let [[x]] be the greatest integer less than or equal to x. For example, [[π]] = 3 and [[3]] = 3. For each sequen
Debora [2.8K]

Answer:

a) \lim_{n\rightarrow \infty}a_n=0

b) The limit is [[4/3]]=1, that is, \lim_{n\rightarrow \infty}a_n=1

Step-by-step explanation:

The definition of the limit of a sequence (an) is as follows:

\lim_{n\rightarrow \infty}a_n=L (the sequence (an) converges to L) means that given \epsilon>0, there exists some natural number N such that if n≥N, then |a_n-L|

We will use that [[x]] is a increasing function. That is, if x≤y then [[x]]≤[[y]]

a) For all \epsilon>0, take N≥6. Then 1/N ≤1/6 and 5/N ≤ 5/6 < 1. We have that 0<5/N<1, therefore [[5/N]]=0 (0 is the biggest integer less than or equal than x, for any x on the interval 0<x<1)

For n≥N, we have that 1/n ≤ 1/N, hence 0< 5/n ≤ 5/N < 1 . As we discussed above, [[5/n]]=0. Then |a_n|=0, therefore |a_n-0|=|a_n|=0  

b) For all \epsilon>0, take N≥3/4 (any N will do). Then 1/N ≤ 4/3 and 1/4N ≤ 1/3. Note that a_n=[[(12 + 4n)/3n]]=[[1/4n + 4/3]]

For n≥N, we have that 1/4n ≤ 1/4N, hence 1< 4/3< 1/4n +4/3 ≤ 1/4N+4/3 ≤ 5/3 <2.If 1<x<2 then [[x]]=1 , hence a_n=[[1/4n +4/3]]=1  

Then |a_n-1|=|1-1|=0, therefore |a_n-1|=0

4 0
4 years ago
A hand held digital music player was marked down by 1/4
Anna35 [415]

I would say the original price was $512 because its now 1/4

so... 128 * 4= 512

4 0
3 years ago
I need help in this section.
Phoenix [80]

Answer:

\frac{1}{45}

Step-by-step explanation:

There are

2 yellow

3 magenta

5 blue

marbles in the bag.

So total of 2 + 3 + 5 = 10 marbles

We have to multiply the probability of yellow on first pick by the probability of yellow on second pick (WITHOUT REPLACEMENT).

We denote P(Y1) as probability of yellow on first draw &

P(Y2) as probability of yellow on second draw

Thus,

P(Y1) = 2/10 = 1/5  [since 2 yellow and 10 total marbles]

Now,

P(Y2) = 1/9  [since now 1 yellow is taken out and NOT replaced, so we have 1 yellow remaining and total 9 marbles]

Now, we multiply:

P(Y1) * P(Y2) = 1/5 * 1/9 = 1/45

The probability is  \frac{1}{45}

6 0
3 years ago
Eight more than twice a number increased by 3 is equal to 79. Find the number
iren2701 [21]

translate, call the number, n

Eight more than (8+) twice a number increased by 3 (2(n+3)) is equal to (=) 79 (79)


8+2(n+3)=79

minus 8 both sides

2(n+3)=71

divide both sides by 2

n+3=35.5

minus 3 both sides

n=32.5

the number is 32.5

7 0
3 years ago
Read 2 more answers
Cannot solve this question need help asap
Schach [20]

P(0,0) and R(2b, 2c)

Midpoint:

x = (x1+x2)/2 and y=(y1+y2)/2

Midpoint PR

x = (0 + 2b)/2

= 2b/2

=b

y = (0 + 2c)/2

=2c/2

=c

Midpoint PR (b,c)

Answer is the last one

(b,c)

3 0
3 years ago
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