<h2>
</h2><h3>kinetic energy is given as</h3>
KE = (0.5) m v²
given that : v = speed of the bottle in each case = 4 m/s when m = 0.125 kg
KE = (0.5) m v² = (0.5) (0.125) (4)² = 1 J
when m = 0.250 kg KE = (0.5) m v² = (0.5) (0.250) (4)² = 2 J
when m = 0.375 kg KE = (0.5) m v² = (0.5) (0.375) (4)² = 3 J
when m = 0.0.500 kg KE = (0.5) m v² = (0.5) (0.500) (4)² = 4 J
Answer:
accelerated motion
Explanation:
a change in velocity (10 m/s to 50 m/s) over time (5 s) is called acceleration.
40/5 = 8 m/s²
Your question has been heard loud and clear.
An alpha particle , can move in any direction randomly. But with a magnetic field , we can deflect the alpha particle in any direction we want.
So , the magnetic field must be placed to the west of the alpha particle , so that the particle gets deflected and moves towards the north direction.
Thank you.
Answer:
<em>Since I can see no choices, I answered it in my own understanding.</em>
Brian - amplitude and frequency
Marcia - amplitude and longitudinal wave
Explanation:
"Sound" and "sound waves" are essential part of a person's life. They can be used for<u> communicating</u> and <u>detecting some object</u>s.
Brian loves singing in the shower which means that he is using a greater amplitude. Amplitude refers to the<em> intensity of the sound </em>or the amount of energy that a sound carries. When one sings in the shower, the sound cannot travel very far. It bounces immediately back to the person singing thus, making the sound bigger. Brian is also using a <em>different range of </em><em>frequency</em><em> compared to his normal way of talking.</em> The frequency of a normal male voice is normally 85 to 180 Hz. A person singing may have a frequency as high as 1,500 Hz.
Marcia talks loudly on the phone. This means that she is also using a greater amplitude because the intensity of her voice is big. Since she is using the telephone, this means that her voice travels in a longitudinal wave through the telephone. This allows her voice to reach to the person on the other end of the line.
Answer:
Explanation:
For answer this we will use the law of the conservation of the angular momentum.
so:
where is the moment of inertia of the merry-go-round, is the initial angular velocity of the merry-go-round, is the moment of inertia of the merry-go-round and the child together and is the final angular velocity.
First, we will find the moment of inertia of the merry-go-round using:
I =
I =
I = 359.375 kg*m^2
Where is the mass and R is the radio of the merry-go-round
Second, we will change the initial angular velocity to rad/s as:
W = 0.520*2 rad/s
W = 3.2672 rad/s
Third, we will find the moment of inertia of both after the collision:
Finally we replace all the data:
Solving for :