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nekit [7.7K]
3 years ago
9

Anybody know the correct answer?

Mathematics
1 answer:
earnstyle [38]3 years ago
4 0

Since \csc^2{x}=\frac{1}{\sin^2{x}} and \cot^2{x}=\frac{\cos^2{x}}{\sin^2{x}}, we can rewrite the right side of the equation as

\frac{1}{\sin^2{x}}-\frac{\cos^2{x}}{\sin^2{x}} =\frac{1-\cos^2{x}}{\sin^2{x}}

Using the identity \sin^2{x}+\cos^2{x}=1, we can subtract \cos^2{x} from either side to obtain the identity \sin^2{x}=1-\cos^2{x}

substituting that into our previous expression, the right side of our equation simply becomes

\frac{\sin^2{x}}{\sin^2{x}}=1

We can now write our whole equation as

3\tan^2{x}-2=1

Adding 2 to both sides:

3\tan^2{x}=3

dividing both sides by 3:

\tan^2{x}=1

\tan{x}=\pm1

When 0 ≤ x ≤ π, tan x can only be equal to 1 when sin x = cos x, which happens at x = π/4, and it can only be equal to -1 when -sin x = cos x, which happens at x = 3π/4

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