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3 years ago

Does 3.04 come before 3.4

Mathematics

2 answers:

Ne4ueva [31]3 years ago

5 0

Yea because 0 is less than 4 so i would be 3.04 and then 3.4

jarptica [38.1K]3 years ago

3 0

Yes. Since there is a zero before the 4, it makes 3.04 smaller therefore before 3.4

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Given expression:

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To find the second term of the expansion.

$(a-b)^4$

Using Binomial theorem,

$(a+b)^{n}=\sum_{i=0}^{n}\left(\begin{array}{l}n \\i\end{array}\right) a^{(n-i)} b^{i}$

Here, a = a and b = –b

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$$\frac{4 !}{0 !(4-0) !} a^{4}(-b)^{0}=1 \cdot \frac{4 !}{0 !(4-0) !} a^{4}=a^4$

Substitute i = 1, we get

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Substitute i = 2, we get

$$\frac{4 !}{2 !(4-2) !} a^{2}(-b)^{2}=\frac{12}{2 !} a^{2}(-b)^{2}=6 a^{2} b^{2}$

Substitute i = 3, we get

$$\frac{4 !}{3 !(4-3) !} a^{1}(-b)^{3}=\frac{4}{1 !} a(-b)^{3}=-4 a b^{3}$

Substitute i = 4, we get

$$\frac{4 !}{4 !(4-4) !} a^{0}(-b)^{4}=1 \cdot \frac{(-b)^{4}}{(4-4) !}=b^{4}$

Therefore,

$$(a-b)^4=\sum_{i=0}^{4}\left(\begin{array}{l}4 \\i\end{array}\right) a^{(4-i)}(-b)^{i}$

$=\frac{4 !}{0 !(4-0) !} a^{4}(-b)^{0}+\frac{4 !}{1 !(4-1) !} a^{3}(-b)^{1}+\frac{4 !}{2 !(4-2) !} a^{2}(-b)^{2}+\frac{4 !}{3 !(4-3) !} a^{1}(-b)^{3}+\frac{4 !}{4 !(4-4) !} a^{0}(-b)^{4}$ $=a^{4}-4 a^{3} b+6 a^{2} b^{2}-4 a b^{3}+b^{4}$

Hence the second term of the expansion is $-4a^3b$ .

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