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Oliga [24]
3 years ago
13

Prove that, tan θ ( 1 + cot ^ 2 θ ) / ( 1 + tan ^ 2 θ ) = cot θ

Mathematics
1 answer:
Gekata [30.6K]3 years ago
3 0

Answer:

(identity has been verified)

Step-by-step explanation:

Verify the following identity:

tan(θ) (cot(θ)^2 + 1)/(tan(θ)^2 + 1) = cot(θ)

Multiply both sides by tan(θ)^2 + 1:

tan(θ) (cot(θ)^2 + 1) = ^?cot(θ) (tan(θ)^2 + 1)

(cot(θ)^2 + 1) tan(θ) = tan(θ) + cot(θ)^2 tan(θ):

tan(θ) + cot(θ)^2 tan(θ) = ^?cot(θ) (tan(θ)^2 + 1)

cot(θ) (tan(θ)^2 + 1) = cot(θ) + cot(θ) tan(θ)^2:

tan(θ) + cot(θ)^2 tan(θ) = ^?cot(θ) + cot(θ) tan(θ)^2

Write cotangent as cosine/sine and tangent as sine/cosine:

sin(θ)/cos(θ) + sin(θ)/cos(θ) (cos(θ)/sin(θ))^2 = ^?cos(θ)/sin(θ) + cos(θ)/sin(θ) (sin(θ)/cos(θ))^2

(sin(θ)/cos(θ)) + (cos(θ)/sin(θ))^2 (sin(θ)/cos(θ)) = cos(θ)/sin(θ) + sin(θ)/cos(θ):

cos(θ)/sin(θ) + sin(θ)/cos(θ) = ^?(cos(θ)/sin(θ)) + (cos(θ)/sin(θ)) (sin(θ)/cos(θ))^2

(cos(θ)/sin(θ)) + (cos(θ)/sin(θ)) (sin(θ)/cos(θ))^2 = cos(θ)/sin(θ) + sin(θ)/cos(θ):

cos(θ)/sin(θ) + sin(θ)/cos(θ) = ^?cos(θ)/sin(θ) + sin(θ)/cos(θ)

The left hand side and right hand side are identical:

Answer: (identity has been verified)

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40 divided by 6 using integer division
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Step-by-step explanation:Start by setting it up with the divisor 6 on the left side and the dividend 40 on the right side like this:

           

   6 ⟌ 4 0  

The divisor (6) goes into the first digit of the dividend (4), 0 time(s). Therefore, put 0 on top:

       0    

   6 ⟌ 4 0  

Multiply the divisor by the result in the previous step (6 x 0 = 0) and write that answer below the dividend.

       0    

   6 ⟌ 4 0  

       0    

Subtract the result in the previous step from the first digit of the dividend (4 - 0 = 4) and write the answer below.

       0    

   6 ⟌ 4 0  

     - 0    

       4    

Move down the 2nd digit of the dividend (0) like this:

       0    

   6 ⟌ 4 0  

     - 0    

       4 0  

The divisor (6) goes into the bottom number (40), 6 time(s). Therefore, put 6 on top:

       0 6  

   6 ⟌ 4 0  

     - 0    

       4 0  

Multiply the divisor by the result in the previous step (6 x 6 = 36) and write that answer at the bottom:

       0 6  

   6 ⟌ 4 0  

     - 0    

       4 0  

      3 6  

Subtract the result in the previous step from the number written above it. (40 - 36 = 4) and write the answer at the bottom.

       0 6  

   6 ⟌ 4 0  

     - 0    

       4 0  

     - 3 6  

         4  

You are done, because there are no more digits to move down from the dividend. The answer is the top number and the remainder is the bottom number. Therefore, the answer to 40 divided by 6 calculated using Long Division is: 6

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