You’re correct answer would be : 14 lmk if this is correct if not I’m so SORRY
Answer:
x = -4 y =-4
Step-by-step explanation:
Solve for the first variable in one of the equations, then substitute the result into the other equation.
<span>First, find what are the numbers that can be divided to 10 and 85. The numbers 10 and 85 can be divided by 5. 10 divided by 5 is equals to 2 and 85 divided by 5 is equals to 17. Ratio is just like a fraction, you need to reduce its terms if you need to. Let’s say 10:85 is a fraction and since it is obvious that it can be divided by 5, you just need to reduce its term. 10/85 can be reduced into 2/17 which is just the same with ratios 10:85 is equals to 2:17.<span>
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The preferred gig is the first one since its today's worth is greater than the today's value of the second gig
What is the today's worth of $5000 each year?
The worth of the second gig, which pays $5000 every year for the next 6 years in today's dollar is the present value of all the six annual cash flows discounted using the present value formula of an ordinary annuity as shown below:
PV=PMT*(1-(1+r)^-N/r
PV=present value of annual payments for 6 years=unknown
PMT=annual payment=$5000
r=required return=discount rate=8%
N=number of annual cash flows=6
PV=$5000*(1-(1+8%)^-6/8%
PV=$5000*(1-(1.08)^-6/0.08
PV=$5000*(1-0.630169626883105)/0.08
PV=$5000*0.369830373116895
/0.08
PV=$23,114.40
The fact that the present value of the second option which pays $5000 annually is lesser than the amount receivable immediately, which is $25,000, hence, the first gig is preferred
Find out more about ordinary annuity on:brainly.com/question/13369387
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