Answer:
read below
Step-by-step explanation:
Alright, archtan /
tan
−
1
(
x
)
is the inverse of tangent. Tan is
sin
cos
. Like the inverse of sin, the inverse of tan is also restricted to quadrants 1 and 4.
Knowing this we are solving for the inverse of tan -1. We are basically being asked the question what angle/radian does tan(-1) equal. Using the unit circle we can see that tan(1)= pi/4.
Since the "Odds and Evens Identity" states that tan(-x) = -tan(x). Tan(-1)= -pi/4.
Knowing that tan is negative in quadrants 2 and 4. the answer is in either of those two quadrants. BUT!!! since inverse of tan is restricted to quadrants 1 and 4 we are left with the only answer -pi/4.
the answer is m=-3n-5/2 or n=2m+5/6
Answer:
9
Step-by-step explanation:
36 1/2 = 6
Given: the exponential expression
The inequality that can be used to find the values for p is p + 7 ≤ 50.
Given the information,
Mr. Smith can only spend up to $50 at a museum. The museum admission ticket is $7. He can use his P dollars to purchase other items from the museum.
The total budget is $50.
The cost per ticket is $7
⇒ Total spent ≤ Total Budget
⇒ p + 7 ≤ 50
⇒ p ≤ 43
Therefore, p + 7 ≤ 50 will be the inequality that aids in determining the range of values for p.
To learn more about inequality click here:
brainly.com/question/20383699
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Answer:
38/45
Step-by-step explanation:
4/10+4/9 Simplify.
2/5*4/9 Find a common denominator (45).
2/5*9/9=18/45
4/9*5/5=20/45
18/45+20/45=38/45
Hope this helps and have a great day C:
