Answer:
Letter A is correct. <u>Cause-oriented.</u>
Explanation:
A cause-oriented approach to problem solving is a method characterized by focusing on the history of the problem and then thereafter finding the root cause that originated it.
It is a very effective method when used to find solutions to various organizational problems that are apparently unsolved.
Answer: Zero
Explanation:
The Correlation Coefficient measures the relationship between 2 variables under study and ranges from -1 to +1 which -1 meaning that the two are perfectly negatively correlated and +1 meaning they are perfectly positively correlation. A Correlation Coefficient of 0 means that there is no relationship.
An efficient market is one where all information is available to every market participant. This means that one cannot use information from one period to make abnormal profits in another period because all information is available. The Correlation Coefficient will therefore show 0 because information from the previous period is not being used in another period meaning there is no relationship between stock returns.
Answer:
The correct answer is A) $2.800
Explanation:
Using the straight-line method to depreciate, the calculation to find the depreciation tax shield is the following:
- Finding the depreciable cost:
- Finding the depreciation per year:
- Finally, the depreciation tax shield for 2018:
Answer:
97.8 or 98 items
Explanation:
A items:
= Percent of items in inventory × No. of items
= 0.1 × 6,800
= 680
B items:
= Percent of items in inventory × No. of items
= 0.31 × 6,800
= 2,108
C Items:
= Percent of items in inventory × No. of items
= 0.59 × 6,800
= 4,012
Units to be counted everyday:
= 30.90 + 34.55 + 32.35
= 97.8 or 98 items
Answer:
To create the collar, the customer would: <u>buy 1 PHLX 59 SF Call and sell 1 PHLX 61 SF Call.</u>
Explanation:
The meaning of a "collar" is that a put is bought at a strike price that is less than the price of the underlying instrument (this implies that a floor has been put on the price of the instrument); and that a call is disposed at a strike price which is higher than the price of the underlying instrument (this indicates that a ceiling above which the instrument will be called away has been created).
When a collar is put on the price, it indicates that the customer is majorly giving a guarantee for the underlying instrument's minimum and maximum price.
This should make the net cost of the collar to be close to zero due to the fact that the two contracts are "out the money" and also because the premium paid to buy the put is offset by the premium received when the call was sold.
Therefore, since customer in the question wishes to place a collar on the position using PHLX SF FLEX options, he would <u>buy 1 PHLX 59 SF Call and sell 1 PHLX 61 SF Call</u> to create the collar.
