Which value gap refers to a company’s failure to accurately assess what customers really want?

Business

1 answer:

fiasKO [112]2 years ago

5 0

Answer:

The correct answer is: Service Quality Gap.

Explanation:

The Service Quality Gap refers to the difference between what a company understands a customer's desires and what must be really done to satisfy that consumer. Firms should make all the efforts in their hands to close that breach and provide the customer with the good or service they need to keep their businesses going. When the gap is not closed, the customer's loyalty fails, pushing them to look for different options in other organizations.

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Nick and Katelyn paid $1,600 and $2,100 in qualifying expenses for their two daughters, Nicole and Naomi, respectively, to atten

Damm [24]

Answer: $0

Explanation:

From the question, we are informed that Nick and Katelyn paid $1,600 and $2,100 in qualifying expenses for their two daughters, Nicole and Naomi, respectively, to attend the University of Nevada and that Nicole is a sophomore and Naomi is a freshman.

We are further told that Nick and Katelyn's AGI is $202,000. Based on the above scenario, their allowable American opportunity tax credit will be $0. This is because when AGI is more than $180,000 for such taxpayers, the credit is being phased out.

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If the ratio for unit cost to sales price for a product is 1:4, how much would the selling price be for a product if it has a un

Mkey [24]

Ratio and proportion is a useful method in determining a value using a known constant in ratio form. In this case, the ratio of cost to price is always 1/4. Hence, the solution goes as follows:

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Price= $135.4

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2 years ago

In the context of evaluating service quality, _____ refers to the knowledge and courtesy of employees and their ability to conve

AlexFokin [52]

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3 years ago

A company is preparing financial statements using IFRS for the first time for the year ended December 31, 2018. The "transition

8_murik_8 [283]

Answer:

E. January 1, 2017

Explanation:

Financial statements are prepared showing at least two years for the sake of comparability.

It will be important for the company in presenting its financial statement using the IFRS for the year ended December 31st 2018 to show the financial statements for the year ended 31st December 2017 as if it had always applied the IFRS.

The basic idea is to show in the financial statements the effects of adopting the IFRS from a preceding period in order for the entity to show the financial statement for 2017 and 2018 and be able to compare them having been prepared on the same basis.

Thus, the transition date will be the beginning of the preceding period when the IFRS was applied (1st Jan. 2017 oe 31st Dec. 2016).

I hope this explanation makes the concept easy to grasp.

Thank you.

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2 years ago

Accounts receivable are assets on a balance sheet most likely because they represent the?

Ierofanga [76]

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