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irinina [24]
3 years ago
6

Your opinion is that security C has an expected rate of return of 0.106. It has a beta of 1.1. The risk-free rate is 0.04 and th

e market expected rate of return is 0.10. According to the Capital Asset Pricing Model, this security isA. underpriced. B. overpriced.C. fairly priced.D. Cannot be determined from data provided.
Business
1 answer:
Lostsunrise [7]3 years ago
8 0

Answer:

C. Fairly priced

Explanation: use the equation of calculating Capital Asset Pricing Model CAPM

ER=Rf+βi(ERm−Rf)

where:

ER =expected return of investment = ?

Rf=risk-free rate = 4%

βi=beta of the investment = 1.1

(ERm−Rf)=market risk premium = (10% - 4%)

​

Therefore ER=Rf+βi(ERm−Rf)

= 4% + 1.1(10% - 4%)

=10.6%

therefore, the security is fairly priced

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The client at the HIV clinic has come in complaining of unintended weight loss with diarrhea lasting over the last month. How is
AVprozaik [17]

Answer:

The correct answer is Loss of 10% of usual weight.

Explanation:

The attrition syndrome associated with HIV infection is characterized by:

  1. Loss of involuntary body weight and greater than 10% compared to the normal reference weight.
  2. Diarrhea or chronic weakness with fever, for a period greater than 30 days.
  3. Absence of any infection or condition other than HIV: cancer, tuberculosis, cryptosporidiasis and other enteritis that could explain these symptoms.
  4. In practice, any progressive and involuntary weight loss of this magnitude is considered a syndrome of attrition and translates into the development of a significant nutritional deficit that leads to significant physical and psychological deterioration.

The attrition syndrome may be a consequence of HIV infection itself. Thus, those patients presenting with symptoms of wear and tear should use all available options of antiretroviral therapy, which may remit symptoms and not require other specific interventions. It is also associated with opportunistic HIV infections and cancers. Opportunistic infections that cause diarrhea can cause attrition syndrome. This can cause greater immunodeficiency in affected people and predispose them to certain diarrheal opportunistic infections, which would be reinforced by a vicious cycle.

7 0
3 years ago
On January 1, 2016, Hackman Corporation issued $1,400,000 face value 12% bonds dated January 1, 2016, for $1,423,060. The bonds
krok68 [10]

Answer:

(a) Bond issuance:

Debit Cash                                                           $1,423,060

Credit Bonds payable                                         $1,400,000

Credit Premium on bond payable                          $23,060

<em>(To record bond issuance)</em>

(b) June 20 interest payment

Debit Interest expense (balancing figure)              $81,694

Debit Premium on bond payable                             $2,306

Credit Cash                                                             $84,000

<em>(To record first interest payment - June 30)</em>

(c) December 31  interest payment

Debit Interest expense (balancing figure)             $81,694

Debit Premium on bond payable                           $2,306

Credit Cash                                                            $84,000

<em>(To record first interest payment - December 31 )</em>

Explanation:

A bond is a long-term promissory note issued by a company in order to borrow from investors to fund its business operations.

Calculation of the interest expense:

Premium on bonds payable (balancing figure) = $23,060

Number of periods = 5 years x 2 = 10 periods

Amortization of premium on bond payable = $23,060 / 10 periods = $2,306

Calculation of the cash proceed:

Cash = Face value of bond x contractual interest x Time period

Cash = $1,400,000 x 12% x 6 / 12 = $84,000 (see the journals above)

4 0
4 years ago
Hair World Inc. is a wholesaler of hair supplies. Hair World uses a perpetual inventory system. The following transactions (summ
marin [14]

Answer:

Net Sales

Gross Revenue                                           $‭101,200

Less:

Sales Discount                         $288

Sales Returns                          <u> $1,000 </u>      <u>  $1,288</u>

Net Sales                                                      $‭99,912‬‬

Gross revenue  = 83,200 + 18,000 = $‭101,200‬

Gross Profit

Net Sales                                                      $‭99,912‬

Less: Cost of Goods sold                           <u> ($‭52,747‬)</u>

Gross Profit                                                  $‭‭47,165‬

Cost of goods sold

= 44,797 - 600 + 8,550

= $‭52,747‬

7 0
3 years ago
When an offeree changes the terms of an offer, it is called a counteroffer. What happens
Amanda [17]
<h2>Original offer becomes void (nothing).</h2>

Explanation:

Counteroffer: The original offer would have been either rejected or modified with new one.

This gives the original offeror three options:

  • accept the counteroffer,
  • reject it, or
  • make another offer.

Example:

When a buyer makes an offer on say "home", there is a possibility of seller can making a counteroffer. In other terms, a counteroffer is one of the negotiating tactic in response to the initial offer. You can call it as business tricks. When a counteroffer is announced, "the original offer goes nothing(void)".

7 0
3 years ago
Pat invested a total of $3,000. Part of the money was invested in a money market account that paid 10 percent simple annual inte
adell [148]

Answer:

$800 in account that pays 10% interest

$2,200 in account that pays 8% interest

Explanation:

Account A = Money market account that paid 10% simple annual interest

Account B = Money market account that paid 8% simple annual interest

W1 = Proportion of money invested in Account A

W2 = Proportion of money invested in Account B

W1 + W2 = 1

therefore, W1 = 1 - W2

Principle amount = $3,000

3000 x W1 = Amount of money invested in Account A

3000 x W2 = Amount of money invested in Account B

Total interest earned = $256

R1 = 10% simple interest on Account A

R2 = 8% simple interest on Account B)

Total Interest = (Principle x W1 x R1) + (Principle x W2 x R2)

256 = (3000 x W1 x 10%) + (3000 x W2 x 8%)

256 = 300 W1 + 240 W2

256 = 300 W1 + 240 ( 1 - W1)

256 = 300 W1 + 240 - 240 W1

16 = 60 W1

W1 = 16 / 60

W2 = 1 - W1 = 1 - (16/60) = 11/15

Amount of money invested in Account A = 3000 x W1 = 3000 x (16/60) = $800

Amount of money invested in Account B = 3000 x W2 = 3000 x (11/15) =$2,200

6 0
3 years ago
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