This is what i found Answer 1
Risk-Adjusted Asset Base
The calculation of the risk-adjusted asset base for a bank is as below-
Risk-adjusted asset = (Cash × 0%) + (municipal security × 20%) + (home mortgages × 50%) + (Commercial loans × 100%)
= (20 × 0%) + (100 × 20%) + (500 × 50%) + (300$ × 100%)
= 0 + 20 + 250 + 300
= $570 million
The outcome shows that the risk-adjusted or weighted asset based for the bank will be $570 million.
Tier1 and Tier 2 Capital:
If the bank has no off-balance sheet activity then minimum required level of Tier 1 and Tier 2 capital will be-
Tier 1 capital = Risk-weighted asset × 4%
= $570 × 4%
= $22.8 million
Tier 2 capital = Maximum of 1.25% of risk-weighted asset
= $570 × 1.25%
= $7.125 million
Total capital = $22.8 + $7.125 => $29.925 million
The outcomes indicate that the minimum required level of Tier1 and Tier
2 capital is $22.8 million and $7.125 million for the bank.
Bank Comply with Capital Requirements:
If the bank has Tier 1 capital of $25 million and Tier 2 capital of $15
million then it will comply with its capital requirements of $29.925
million. It is because in this situation, total capital of bank is $37
million that is higher than the above calculated capital of $29.925
million.
Impact of off-Balance Sheet Activities on Capital Requirements
The addition of off-balance sheet activities might increase the capital
requirement of the bank. It is because an off-balance sheet items is a
financial contract that can create credit loss for the company due to
credit risk. So, in case of adding off-balance sheet activities, a bank
will require more capital to cover credit loss. Along with this, it can
also increase the minimum ratio of capital to risk-weighted assets from
8% and in that situation; the bank will need more capital (Carmichael
& Graham, 2012).
Answer 2
Probability of Repayment and Risk Premium
A).
If the rate on a one-year treasury bill is 6% and in case of loan
default, no payments are expected on financial securities then the
probability of repayment and the risk premium on 1 year AA-rated loan
yielding 9 percent will be-
Probability of Repayment:
The following formula can be useful to determine probability of repayment.
P = (1 + I) / (1 + k)
Where,
I = 6%
k = 9%
Then, ...you have $2.19 left :D
Answer:
Explanation:
Available for sale securities are required to be reported at fair value.
Hence the difference between amortized cost and fair value is required to be transferred to other comprehensive income.
The amount of credit loss that Marin should report on this available for sale security at 31-12-2020
= $52,000 - $44,000
= $8,000
Answer:
Direct Labor rate Variance $ 24840 Unfavorable
Labor Efficiency Variance $23520 favorable
Explanation:
Direct Labor rate Variance = Actual Hours * Actual Rate- Actual Hour * Standard Rate
Direct Labor rate Variance = 24840*15- 24840*14
= 372600- 347760
= $ 24840 Unfavorable
Labor Efficiency Variance = Actual Hours * Standard Rate- Standard Hour * Standard Rate
Labor Efficiency Variance = 24840*14- 4*6630*14
= 24840*14- 26520*14
= 347760 - 371280= $23520 favorable
Answer:
If for some reason Costco was to suffer from a lawsuit then it would have no choice but to cut the pay rates of their employees. Also, if there was a depression in the economic that caused a dramatic decrease in the stores profit.
Answer:
b. percentage change in the consumer price index.
Explanation:
Inflation is the increase in the price of a commodity, it is expressed as a percent change in the price of an item. We can calculate the inflation using percentage change in consumer price index.
Consumer price index measure the percentage of change in the price of a market basket of consumer goods and services.