7.5 .. multiply .05 times 150
Answer:
i must be popular because my phone is blowing up- hyperbole
her smile lit up my day-metaphor
the dog continued to bark, speaking with authority-personification
he wept like a faucet-simile
Step-by-step explanation:
Answer:
Just put the numbers in order then the interquartile range would be the largest number from the high quartile and the lowest number from the lower quartile.
Answer:
Answers may vary but will most likely be close to 2.
Step-by-step explanation
- Given:
first test:38%
second test:76%
SIMULATION FIRST TEST
Randomly select a 2-digit number.
If the digit is between 00 and 35 then you passed the test,else you did not pass the test.
SIMULATION SECOND TEST
Randomly select a 2-digit number.
if the digit is between 00 and 75 then you passed the test,else you did not pass the test.
SIMULATION TRIAL
Perform the simulation of the first test.if you did not pass the first test then perform the simulation of the second test.
Record the number of trials needed to pass the first or second test.
Repeat 20 times and take the average of the 20 recorded number of trials
(what is the sum of recorded values divided by 20).
Note:you will most likely obtain a result of about two trials needed.
Answer:
36⁄125 or if we are talking about the lowest term it is 9
/3125
Step-by-step explanation:
Step 1: 0.288 = 288⁄1000
Step 2: Simplify 288⁄1000 = 36⁄125 Percent" or "%" means "out of 100" or "per 100",
<em>Or for the lowest term:</em>
Therefore 0.288% can be written as
0.288
100
.
Next, we can multiply by
1
in the form of
1000
1000
to eliminate the decimal in the numerator:
1000
1000
×
0.288
100
⇒
1000
×
0.288
1000
×
100
⇒
288
100000
.
We can now reduce the fraction as:
288
100000
⇒
32
×
9
32
×
3125
⇒
32
×
9
32
×
3125
⇒
9
3125
.
