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aleksley [76]
4 years ago
14

A(n) 1.51 kg sphere makes a perfectly inelastic collision with a second sphere that is initially at rest. The composite system m

oves with a speed equal to one-third the original speed of the 1.51 kg sphere. What is the mass of the second sphere?
Physics
1 answer:
marusya05 [52]4 years ago
6 0

Answer: 3.02kg

Explanation:

According to the law of conservation of momentum, the sum of momentum of bodies before collision is equal to the sum of momentum of the bodies after collision.

Note that this bodies will move with a common velocity after collision.

Since momentum = mass of a body × its velocity

Let m1 and m2 be the masses of the spheres

u1 and u2 be their velocities

v be their common velocity after collision

Mathematically

m1u1 + m2u2 = (m1+m2)v

From the question, the second sphere is initially at rest i.e u2 = 0m/s and the composite system moves with a speed equal to one-third the original speed of 1st sphere i.e V = u1/3

Substituting this conditions into the formula, we have;

m1u1 + m2(0) = (m1+m2)u1/3

m1u1 = u1/3(m1+m2)

Given m1 = 1.51kg

m1 = 1/3(m1+m2)

m1 = m1/3 + m2/3

m1-m1/3 = m2/3

2m1/3 = m2/3

2m1 = m2

2(1.51) =m2

m2 = 3.02kg

The mass of the second sphere is 3.02kg

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Answer:

v = 12.12 m/s

Explanation:

Given that,

The mass of the cart, m = 75 kg

The roller coaster begins 15 m above the ground.

We need to find the velocity of the cart halfway to the ground. Let the velocity be v. Using the conservation of energy at this position, h = 15/2 = 7.5 m

mgh=\dfrac{1}{2}mv^2\\\\v=\sqrt{2gh} \\\\v=\sqrt{2\times 9.8\times 7.5} \\\\v=12.12\ m/s

So, the velocity of the cart is 12.12 m/s.

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1. What is the new kinetic energy of the 1900kg ship on the right moving at 4 m/s?
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Explanation:

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A violin string vibrates at 260 Hz when unfingered. At what frequency will it vibrate if it is fingered one fourth of the way do
Advocard [28]

Answer:

346.66 Hz

Explanation:

l_1 = Length of string which is unfingered = l

l_2 = Length of string which is vibrate when fingered = l-\dfrac{1}{4}l=\dfrac{3}{4}l

f_1 = Unfingered frequency = 260 Hz

f_2 = Fingered frequency

Frequency is inversely proportional to length

f=\dfrac{1}{l}

So,

\dfrac{f_1}{f_2}=\dfrac{l_2}{l_1}\\\Rightarrow \dfrac{f_1}{f_2}=\dfrac{\dfrac{3}{4}l}{l}\\\Rightarrow \dfrac{f_1}{f_2}=\dfrac{3}{4}\\\Rightarrow f_2=\dfrac{4}{3}f_1\\\Rightarrow f_2=\dfrac{4}{3}260\\\Rightarrow f_2=346.66\ Hz

The frequency of the fingered string is 346.66 Hz

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Planet 1 orbits Star 1 and Planet 2 orbits Star 2 in circular orbits of the same radius. However, the orbital period of Planet 1
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Answer:

The mass of Star 2 is Greater than the mass of Start 1. (This, if we suppose the masses of the planets are much smaller than the masses of the stars)

Explanation:

First of all, let's draw a free body diagram of a planet orbiting a star. (See attached picture).

From the free body diagram we can build an equation with the sum of forces between the start and the planet.

\sum F=ma

We know that the force between two bodies due to gravity is given by the following equation:

F_{g} = G\frac{m_{1}m_{2}}{r^{2}}

in this case we will call:

M= mass of the star

m= mass of the planet

r = distance between the star and the planet

G= constant of gravitation.

so:

F_{g} =G\frac{Mm}{r^{2}}

Also, if the planet describes a circular orbit, the centripetal force is given by the following equation:

F_{c}=ma_{c}

where the centripetal acceleration is given by:

a_{c}=\omega ^{2}r

where

\omega = \frac{2\pi}{T}

Where T is the period, and \omega is the angular speed of the planet, so:

a_{c} = ( \frac{2\pi}{T})^{2}r

or:

a_{c}=\frac{4\pi^{2}r}{T^{2}}

so:

F_{c}=m(\frac{4\pi^{2}r}{T^{2}})

so now we can do the sum of forces:

\sum F=ma

F_{g}=ma_{c}

G\frac{Mm}{r^{2}}=m(\frac{4\pi^{2}r}{T^{2}})

in this case we can get rid of the mass of the planet, so we get:

G\frac{M}{r^{2}}=(\frac{4\pi^{2}r}{T^{2}})

we can now solve this for T^{2} so we get:

T^{2} = \frac{4\pi ^{2}r^{3}}{GM}

We could take the square root to both sides of the equation but that would not be necessary. Now, the problem tells us that the period of planet 1 is longer than the period of planet 2, so we can build the following inequality:

T_{1}^{2}>T_{2}^{2}

So let's see what's going on there, we'll call:

M_{1}= mass of Star 1

M_{2}= mass of Star 2

So:

\frac{4\pi^{2}r^{3}}{GM_{1}}>\frac{4\pi^{2}r^{3}}{GM_{2}}

we can get rid of all the constants so we end up with:

\frac{1}{M_{1}}>\frac{1}{M_{2}}

and let's flip the inequality, so we get:

M_{2}>M_{1}

This means that for the period of planet 1 to be longer than the period of planet 2, we need the mass of star 2 to be greater than the mass of star 1. This makes sense because the greater the mass of the star is, the greater the force it applies on the planet is. The greater the force, the faster the planet should go so it stays in orbit. The faster the planet moves, the smaller the period is. In this case, planet 2 is moving faster, therefore it's period is shorter.

6 0
3 years ago
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