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Alina [70]
3 years ago
10

Question 2

Mathematics
2 answers:
VladimirAG [237]3 years ago
7 0

Step-by-step explanation:

I think no. C is the answer. Please let me know by comment I am wrong or right

Naya [18.7K]3 years ago
5 0

Answer:

C

Step-by-step explanation:

A set of coordinates is a function if and only if one input does not map onto two or more different outputs.

In other words, given (x,y), x should each have one distinct y. If an x has 2 or more y, then the y must be the same value.

Choice A:

We see that it has the pairs (1,1) and (1,4). 1 maps onto both 1 and 4, so this is not a function.

Choice B:

Again, we see that it has the pairs (2,2) and (2,5). 2 maps onto both 2 and 5, so this also isn't a function.

Choice C:

In this set, no x are repeated. Thus, this <em>is</em> a function.

Choice D:

In this set, we have the x repeated four times, with 1 mapping onto 2, 3, 5, and 6. Thus, this is not a function.

So, our answer is C.

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y=-1/3x+4

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Subtract 1/3x on both sides to get y by itself, and that leaves y on one side and -1/3+4 on another.

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A

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Both are ten numbers apart

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Answer:

4\frac{1}{4} - 2\frac{7}{8} = 1\frac{3}{8}

Step-by-step explanation:

Given

4\frac{1}{4} - 2\frac{7}{8} --- proper representation of the question

Required

Evaluate

Convert numbers to improper fractions

4\frac{1}{4} - 2\frac{7}{8} = \frac{17}{4} - \frac{23}{8}

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3 years ago
Suppose you have an experiment where you flip a coin three times. You then count the number of heads. a.)State the random variab
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Answer:

a) X=number of heads observed when flipped the coin 3 times

b) the probability distribution is

P(X=x) = 3/4 * (1/[(3-x)!*x!)])

or

P(X)=1/8 for x=0 and x=3 and P(X)=3/8 for x=1 and x=2

Step-by-step explanation:

the random variable will be X=number of heads observed when flipped the coin 3 times . Since the result from each flip is independent of the others , then X has a binomial probability distribution , such that

P(X=x)= n!/[(n-x)!*x!)*p^x * (1-p)^(n-x)

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p= probability of getting heads in a flip of the coin = 1/2 (assuming that the coin is fair)

therefore

P(X=x)= 3!/[(3-x)!*x!)*(1/2)^(3-x) * (1/2)^x = 3!/[(3-x)!*x!) * (1/2)³ = 3/4 * (1/[(3-x)!*x!)])

P(X=x)= 3/4 * (1/[(3-x)!*x!)])   , for x=[0,1,2,3]

for x=0 and x=3 → P(X)=3/4 * (1/[3!*0!)]) = 1/8

for x=1 and x=2 → P(X)=3/4 * (1/[2!*1!)]) = 3/8

we can verify that is correct since the sum of all the probabilities from x=0 to x=3 is  1/8 +  3/8+ 3/8+ 1/8 = 1

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