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Paladinen [302]
3 years ago
8

If the v – t graph of a particle is parallel to the t – axis the body has (a) uniform velocity (b) uniform acceleration (c) zero

velocity (d) infinite velocity
Physics
1 answer:
maxonik [38]3 years ago
5 0

Answer:

zero  velocity

Explanation:

if the v-t graph is parallel to the time axis its mean body has covered no path in other words the body is at rest so the velocity of the body should be zero

hope my answer will helps u plz mark me brainlist

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In the 2016 Olympics in Rio, after the 50 m freestyle competition, a problem with the pool was found. In lane 1 there was a gent
Dmitry_Shevchenko [17]

Answer:

Explanation:

A )

speed of swimming in still water is given by the expression

distance / time

= 50 / 25

= 2 m /s

In lane 1 , 1.2 cm/s current is flowing in the direction that the swimmers are going so swimmers will cover distance at the rate of  2 + 1.2 = 3.2 m /s.

time to cover distance of 50 m in lane 1

= distance / speed

= 50 / 3.2 = 15.625 s

In lane 8 , 1.2 cm/s current is flowing against  the direction that the swimmers are going so swimmers will cover distance at the rate of  2 - 1.2 = .8 m /s.

time to cover distance of 50 m in lane 1

= distance / speed

= 50 / .8 = 62.5 s

8 0
3 years ago
Verify that the SI unit of impulse is the same as the SI unit of momentum.
lys-0071 [83]

Maybe this will help you out:

Momentum is calculate by the formula:

P = mv

Where:

P = momentum

m = mass      

v = velocity

The SI unit:

mass = kg\\ velocity = \dfrac{m}{s}

So the unit of momentum would be:

kg.\dfrac{m}{s}

Impulse is defined as the change in momentum or how much force changes momentum. It can be calculate with the formula:

I = FΔt

where:

I = impulse

F = Force

Δt = change in time

The SI unit:

F = Newtons (N) or kg.\dfrac{m}{s^{2} }

t = Seconds (s)

So the unit of impulse would be derived this way:

I = FΔt

I = kg.\dfrac{m}{s^{2} } x s

or

\dfrac{kg.m.s}{s^{2}} = \dfrac{kg.m.s}{s.s}

You can then cancel out one s each from the numerator and denominator and you'll be left with:

kg.\dfrac{m}{s}

So then:

Momentum:                             Impulse

kg.\dfrac{m}{s}                                       kg.\dfrac{m}{s}

4 0
3 years ago
What is the frequency of an electromagnetic wave that has a wavelength of 300,000 km? (the speed of light is 300,000 km/s.)?
expeople1 [14]
Frequency represents the number of complete oscillations in one second. it is measured in Hertz (Hz). Electromagnetic waves are waves which do not require a material media for transmission. They travel with a speed of light.
The speed (m/s) of a wave is given by  frequency (Hz) × Wavelength (m)
Speed is 300,000 km/sec or 300,000,000 m/s and the wavelength is 300,000  km or 300,000,000 m.
Frequency = speed÷ wavelength
                 = 300000000 ÷ 300000000 = 1
Therefore, the frequency of the wave is 1Hz

6 0
3 years ago
Two separate disks are connected by a belt traveling at 5m/s. Disk 1 has a mass of 10kg and radius of 35cm. Disk 2 has a mass of
pantera1 [17]

Explanation:

Given that,

Linear speed of both disks is 5 m/s

Mass of disk 1 is 10 kg

Radius of disk 1 is 35 cm or 0.35 m

Mass of disk 2 is 3 kg

Radius of disk 2 is 7 cm or 0.07 m

(a) The angular velocity of disk 1 is :

v=r_1\omega_1\\\\\omega_1=\dfrac{v}{r_1}\\\\\omega_1=\dfrac{5}{0.35}\\\\\omega_1=14.28\ rad/s

(b) The angular velocity of disk 2 is :

v=r_2\omega_2\\\\\omega_2=\dfrac{v}{r_2}\\\\\omega_2=\dfrac{5}{0.07}\\\\\omega_2=71.42\ rad/s

(c) The moment of inertia for the two disk system is given by :

I=I_1+I_2\\\\I=\dfrac{1}{2}m_1r_1^2+\dfrac{1}{2}m_2r_2^2\\\\I=\dfrac{1}{2}(m_1r_1^2+m_2r_2^2)\\\\I=\dfrac{1}{2}\times (10\times (0.35)^2+3\times (0.07)^2)\\\\I=0.619\ kg-m^2

Hence, this is the required solution.

6 0
3 years ago
According to the periodic table, the average atomic mass of helium is
vfiekz [6]

Helium has an atomic mass of 4.00 atomic mass units.

8 0
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