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3 years ago

Can someone please help me :)

Mathematics

1 answer:

gavmur [86]3 years ago

7 0

Answer:

<em>90 degree</em>

Step-by-step explanation:

Three points A, B, and C are added and shown in attached picture.

As the property of inscribed angle in circle:

angle BAC = (1/2) x 88 = 44 deg

As the property of complement angle:

angle ABC = 180 - 89 = 91 deg

As the property of sum of three angles in a triangle:

angle ACB + angle ABC + angle BAC = 180 deg

=> angle ACB = 180 - angle ABC - angle BAC = 180 - 44 - 91 = 45 deg

One more time, we use the property of inscribed angle in circle:

x = 2 x angle ACB = 2 x 45 = 90 deg

Hope this helps!

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The width of a rectangle is 6 kilometers less than twice its length. if its area is 108 square kilometers, find the dimensions

Art [367]

Hi there!

Answer:
length = 9 kilometres
Width = 12 kilometres

Let's solve this problem step by step!
To find our answer we need to set up and solve an equation.

Let the length of the rectangle be represented by x.
The width of the rectangle can therefore be expressed by 2x - 6.

The area of a rectangle can be found by using the formula:
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Plug in the data from the formula
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Simplify using rainbow technique.
$x(2x - 6) = 2 {x}^{2} - 6x$

Now we've found the simplified expression that expresses the area of the rectangle. Therefore, we can now set up and start solve the equation.

$2 {x}^{2} - 6x = 108$
Subtract 108

$2 {x}^{2} - 6x - 108 = 0$
Divide by 2.

${x}^{2} - 3x - 54$
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Rule AB = 0, gives A is 0 or B is 0.

$x - 9 = 0 \\ x = 9 \\ \\ x + 6 = 0 \\ x = - 6$

The length of the rectangle, which was represented by x, must be 9 (since it cannot be a negative number).

Length
$x = 9$
Width
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~ Hope this helps you!

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3 years ago

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4 years ago

Read 2 more answers

Could the inverse of a non-function be a function? Explain or give an example.

Kitty [74]

Answer:

The inverse of a non-function mapping is not necessarily a function.

For example, the inverse of the non-function mapping $\lbrace (0,\, 0),\, (0,\, 1),\, (1,\, 0),\, (1,\, 1) \rbrace\!$ is the same as itself (and thus isn't a function, either.)

Step-by-step explanation:

A mapping is a set of pairs of the form $(a,\, b)$ . The first entry of each pair is the value of the input. The second entry of the pair would be the value of the output.

A mapping is a function if and only if for each possible input value $x$ , at most one of the distinct pairs includes $x\!$ as the value of first entry.

For example, the mapping $\lbrace (0,\, 0),\, (1,\, 0) \rbrace$ is a function. However, the mapping $\lbrace (0,\, 0),\, (1,\, 0),\, (1,\, 1) \rbrace$ isn't a function since more than one of the distinct pairs in this mapping include $1$ as the value of the first entry.

The inverse of a mapping is obtained by interchanging the two entries of each of the pairs. For example, the inverse of the mapping $\lbrace (a_{1},\, b_{1}),\, (a_{2},\, b_{2})\rbrace$ is the mapping $\lbrace (b_{1},\, a_{1}),\, (b_{2},\, a_{2})\rbrace$ .

Consider mapping $\lbrace (0,\, 0),\, (0,\, 1),\, (1,\, 0),\, (1,\, 1) \rbrace\!$ . This mapping isn't a function since the input value $0$ is the first entry of more than one of the pairs.

Invert $\lbrace (0,\, 0),\, (0,\, 1),\, (1,\, 0),\, (1,\, 1) \rbrace\!$ as follows:

$(0,\, 0)$ becomes $(0,\, 0)$ .
$(0,\, 1)$ becomes $(1,\, 0)$ .
$(1,\, 0)$ becomes $(0,\, 1)$ .
$(1,\, 1)$ becomes $(1,\, 1)$ .

In other words, the inverse of the mapping $\lbrace (0,\, 0),\, (0,\, 1),\, (1,\, 0),\, (1,\, 1) \rbrace\!$ would be $\lbrace (0,\, 0),\, (1,\, 0),\, (0,\, 1),\, (1,\, 1) \rbrace\!$ , which is the same as the original mapping. (Mappings are sets. There is no order between entries within a mapping.)

Thus, $\lbrace (0,\, 0),\, (0,\, 1),\, (1,\, 0),\, (1,\, 1) \rbrace\!$ is an example of a non-function mapping that is still not a function.

More generally, the inverse of non-trivial ellipses (a class of continuous non-function $\mathbb{R} \to \mathbb{R}$ mappings, including circles) are also non-function mappings.

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