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OlgaM077 [116]
3 years ago
11

Describe two ways 5000 and 500 are related

Mathematics
1 answer:
dalvyx [7]3 years ago
5 0

Answer:

they both can be multiplied by 10 and both have more than one 0

Step-by-step explanation:

50*10=500

500*10=5000

sorry this is my first time answering a question so idk fully if its right -_-

You might be interested in
An employees hourly raise went up from $10 per hour to $12 per hour. What is the rate of increase?
Anastaziya [24]

20% because:

rate of Increase = ( final - initial ) / initial * 100

rate of increase = ( 12 - 10 ) / 10 * 100

rate of Increase = 2 / 10 * 100

rate of Increase = 20



5 0
3 years ago
a television with a 5:4 screen shows an image with a ratio of 20:12 which creates a letter boxed image. What percent of the scre
Grace [21]

Answer: 75\%

Step-by-step explanation:

You know that the ratio of the television's screen is 5:4 . This ratio can be also written as the following fraction:

\frac{5}{4}

The television shows an image with a ratio of 20:12 which can be also written as a fraction:

\frac{20}{12}

Set up the following proportion and solve for "x":

\frac{20}{x}=\frac{5}{4}\\\\x=\frac{4*20}{5}\\\\x=16

Now, in order to find the percent of the screen area occupied make the following division:

\% occupied=\frac{12}{16}*100=75\%

6 0
3 years ago
Need help pleaseI was bad at math in school so lwant to learn
aleksklad [387]

The probability of an event is expressed as

Pr(\text{event) =}\frac{Total\text{ number of favourable/desired outcome}}{Tota\text{l number of possible outcome}}

Given:

\begin{gathered} \text{Red}\Rightarrow2 \\ \text{Green}\Rightarrow3 \\ \text{Blue}\Rightarrow2 \\ \Rightarrow Total\text{ number of balls = 2+3+2=7 balls} \end{gathered}

The probability of drwing two blue balls one after the other is expressed as

Pr(\text{blue)}\times Pr(blue)

For the first draw:

\begin{gathered} Pr(\text{blue) = }\frac{number\text{ of blue balls}}{total\text{ number of balls}} \\ =\frac{2}{7} \end{gathered}

For the second draw, we have only 1 blue ball left out of a total of 6 balls (since a blue ball with drawn earlier).

Thus,

\begin{gathered} Pr(\text{blue)}=\frac{number\text{ of blue balls left}}{total\text{ number of balls left}} \\ =\frac{1}{6} \end{gathered}

The probability of drawing two blue balls one after the other is evaluted as

\begin{gathered} \frac{1}{6}\times\frac{2}{7} \\ =\frac{1}{21} \end{gathered}

The probablity that none of the balls drawn is blue is evaluted as

\begin{gathered} 1-\frac{1}{21} \\ =\frac{20}{21} \end{gathered}

Hence, the probablity that none of the balls drawn is blue is evaluted as

\frac{20}{21}

8 0
1 year ago
Plz help Ill give brainliest for first answer
faltersainse [42]

Answer:

ok ask the question plzzzzz

5 0
3 years ago
Read 2 more answers
Karen has 7 over 8cup of ice cream. How many 1 over 3cup servings can she make?
AlexFokin [52]
First, we need to find the least common denominator. The LCD for 7/8 and 1/3 would be 24. 7*3/8*3 = 21/24. 1*8/3*8 = 8/24. So, how many 8/24 will go into 21/24? 8 goes into 21 two times, and we are left with a remainder of 5. The answer is: Karen can make 2 and 1/24 servings of 1/3 cups of ice cream.
3 0
3 years ago
Read 2 more answers
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