What is the distance between (-1, 1) and (5,9)?

How should i solve number 2 ?

MAXImum [283]

X-1%x^2-2x-3 =0
X-1=0
X=1 , ≠-1 , x≠3

Answer X=1

6 0

4 years ago

Can I get help with this please ????

storchak [24]

Answer:

B

Step-by-step explanation:

Use formula given above

4 0

3 years ago

The correlation between the height and weight of children aged 6 to 9 is found to be about r = 0.8. Suppose we use the height x

Andrew [12]

Answer:

$r=\frac{n(\sum xy)-(\sum x)(\sum y)}{\sqrt{[n\sum x^2 -(\sum x)^2][n\sum y^2 -(\sum y)^2]}}$

The value of r is always between $-1 \leq r \leq 1$

And we have another measure related to the correlation coefficient called the R square and this value measures the % of variance explained between the two variables of interest, and for this case we have:

$r^2 = 0.8^2 = 0.64$

So then the best conclusion for this case would be:

c. the fraction of variation in weights explained by the least-squares regression line of weight on height is 0.64.

Step-by-step explanation:

For this case we know that the correlation between the height and weight of children aged 6 to 9 is found to be about r = 0.8. And we know that we use the height x of a child to predict the weight y of the child

We need to rememeber that the correlation is a measure of dispersion of the data and is given by this formula:

$r=\frac{n(\sum xy)-(\sum x)(\sum y)}{\sqrt{[n\sum x^2 -(\sum x)^2][n\sum y^2 -(\sum y)^2]}}$

The value of r is always between $-1 \leq r \leq 1$

And we have another measure related to the correlation coefficient called the R square and this value measures the % of variance explained between the two variables of interest, and for this case we have:

$r^2 = 0.8^2 = 0.64$

So then the best conclusion for this case would be:

c. the fraction of variation in weights explained by the least-squares regression line of weight on height is 0.64.

3 0

3 years ago

An engineer on the ground is looking at the top of a building the angle of elevation to the top of the building is 22 degrees th

vekshin1

Hello,

tan 22°=450/d
==>d=450/tan 22°=1113.7890... ≈1114 (ft)

7 0

3 years ago

Read 2 more answers

Need a good explanation, i dont get how to get the answer.

sasho [114]

Answer:

141000 * (1 - 0.016)^15 = 110699.48 = A 110700

Step-by-step explanation:

1st year depreciation = 141000 - (141000 * 0.016) = 138744

2nd year depreciation = 138744 - (138744 * 0.016) = 136524.096

3rd year depreciation = 136524.096 - (136524.096 * 0.016) = 134339.710464

etc. unitl you reach the 15th year

Basically we calculate 1.6% of the current value of the house and subtract that from the current value for each year for 15 years.

The equation used in the answer is a faster way to approach your answer instead of calculating for each year.

You'd multiply your initial value by the difference in percentage (note well that since it is decreasing in value we subtract the decimal equivalent to 1.6% which is 0.016, from 1 where one represents 100% and then raise the difference gained to the power of the amount of years which would be 15.

6 0

3 years ago