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The true statement is <em>D. When </em><em>BCA</em><em> is negative, it implies that government </em><em>budget deficits</em><em> and/or part of </em><em>domestic investment </em><em>are being financed with </em><em>foreign-controlled capital</em><em>.</em>
The above statement is based on the intimate relationship between a country's Balance of the Current Account (BCA) and how the country finances its domestic investments and pays for government expenditure.
Explanation:
National income = Y = GNP
Consumption = C
Private Investment = I
Government spending = G
Exports = X
Imports = M
Taxes = T
Therefore, the BCA = X-M = (S-1) + (T – G)
Where BCA = Balance of Current Account
Thus, the Balance of the Current Account (BCA) should be <u>positive</u> to avoid deficit-financing of government budgets.
Learn more: brainly.com/question/8859561
Answer:
Decrease
Explanation:
Calculation to determine overall break-even point for the entire company
Contribution margin for C90B = ($19,950-
$5,985)/$19,950
Contribution margin for C90B = 70%
Contribution margin for Y45E =( $26,190- $10,476)/$26,190
Contribution margin for Y45E= 60%
Therefore Based on the above calculation if the sales mix were to shift toward Product C90B with total dollar sales remaining constant, the overall break-even point for the entire company
Would DECREASE reason been that C90B have more contribution margin ratio of 70% compare to Y45E which had contribution margin ratio of 60%
Answer:
The correct answer is "startling statement"
Explanation:
A startling statement is an exponential declaration, that nobody expected and leaves everyone who hears, surprised.
