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gogolik [260]
3 years ago
11

Ask Your Teacher A coil has an inductance of 3.00 mH, and the current in it changes from 0.200 A to 1.50 A in a time interval of

0.200 s. Find the magnitude of the average induced emf in the coil during this time interval.
Physics
1 answer:
Pepsi [2]3 years ago
8 0

Answer:

Magnitude of the average induced emf in the coil = 0.0195 Volts

Explanation:

Induced emf in a coil with current flowing through it is can be calculated using the relation given below

emf = -L\frac{dI}{dt} ------------ Equation (1)

Where "L" represents the inductance in H

dI represents the change in current in Ampere

and dt represents the change in time or time period for which the current is flowing in seconds

Given

L = 3.00 mH  = 3 * 10^ {-3} H

I_0 = 0.200 Ampere

I_t = 1.50 Ampere

t = 0.200 seconds

Substituting the given values in equation (1) we get -

emf = - (3 * 10^{-3}) * \frac{1.500 - 0.200}{0.200} \\emf = 0.0195

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Answer:park lights and license plate illumination lamps

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Answer: The kinetic-molecular theory explains why gases are more compressible than either liquids or solids. Gases are compressible because most of the volume of a gas is composed of the large amounts of empty space between the gas particles.

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4 years ago
The period of a pendulum is the time it takes for the pendulum to make one full​ back-and-forth swing. The period of a pendulum
mixer [17]

Answer: 0.04 s

Explanation:

The given equation for the period T of a pendulum when the acceleration due gravity is given in feet per squared second g=32 ft/s^{2} is:

T=2 \pi \sqrt{\frac{l}{32 ft/s^{2}}}

Where l=\frac{1}{18} ft is the length of the pendulum

T=2 \pi \sqrt{\frac{\frac{1}{18} ft}{32 ft/s^{2}}}

T=0.04 s

3 0
4 years ago
Một chất điểm chuyển động tròn đều, sau 5 giây nó quay được 20 vòng. Chu kì quay của chất điểm là:
Alborosie

Answer:

T=0,25s

Explanation

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7 0
3 years ago
Will mark the brainliest
AysviL [449]

Answer:

The impulse transferred to the nail is 0.01 kg*m/s.

Explanation:

The impulse (J) transferred to the nail can be found using the following equation:

J = \Delta p = p_{f} - p_{i}

Where:                                                                

p_{f}: is the final momentum

p_{i}: is the initial momentum

The initial momentum is given by:

p_{i} = m_{1}v_{1_{i}} + m_{2}v_{2_{i}}

Where 1 is for the hammer and 2 is for the nail.

Since the hammer is moving down (in the negative direction):

v_{1_{i}} = -10 m/s

And because the nail is not moving:

v_{2_{i}}= 0                      

p_{i} = m_{1}v_{1_{i}} = 0.25 kg*(-10 m/s) = -2.5 kg*m/s

Now, the final momentum can be found taking into account that the hammer remains in contact with the nail during and after the blow:

p_{f} = m_{1}v_{1_{f}} + m_{2}v_{2_{f}}

Since the hammer and the nail are moving in the negative direction:

v_{1_{f}} = v_{2_{f}} = -9.7 m/s

p_{f} = -9.7 m/s(7 \cdot 10^{-3} kg + 0.25 kg) = -2.49 kg*m/s

Finally, the impulse is:

J = p_{f} - p_{i} = - 2.49 kg*m/s + 2.50 kg*m/s = 0.01 kg*m/s

Therefore, the impulse transferred to the nail is 0.01 kg*m/s.

I hope it helps you!                                                                                                                                                                                                                                                                                                                                                                                                                    

7 0
3 years ago
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