Why does range of motion need to be measured separately for each joint

Physics

1 answer:

telo118 [61]4 years ago

6 0

Because each joint is capable of a different measure of its own range of motion

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Consult interactive solution 2.22 before beginning this problem. a car is traveling along a straight road at a velocity of +30.0

Inessa05 [86]

Let $a_1$ be the average acceleration over the first 2.46 seconds, and $a_2$ the average acceleration over the next 6.79 seconds.

At the start, the car has velocity 30.0 m/s, and at the end of the total 9.25 second interval it has velocity 15.2 m/s. Let $v$ be the velocity of the car after the first 2.46 seconds.

By definition of average acceleration, we have

$a_1=\dfrac{v-30.0\,\frac{\mathrm m}{\mathrm s}}{2.46\,\mathrm s}$

$a_2=\dfrac{15.2\,\frac{\mathrm m}{\mathrm s}-v}{6.79\,\mathrm s}$

and we're also told that

$\dfrac{a_1}{a_2}=1.66$

(or possibly the other way around; I'll consider that case later). We can solve for $a_1$ in the ratio equation and substitute it into the first average acceleration equation, and in turn we end up with an equation independent of the accelerations:

$1.66a_2=\dfrac{v-30.0\,\frac{\mathrm m}{\mathrm s}}{2.46\,\mathrm s}$