Assuming the order required is as n-> inf.
As n->inf, o(log(n+1)) -> o(log(n)) since the 1 is insignificant compared with n.
We can similarly drop the "1" as n-> inf, the expression becomes log(n^2+1) ->
log(n^2)=2log(n) which is still o(log(n)).
So yes, both are o(log(n)).
Note: you may have more offers of answers if you post similar questions in the computer and technology section.
The little squares at corner-B and corner-E were drawn there
to show that those are right angles.
32
22+10=32yd ...............
-10y^2 + (-3y^2) - 4y^2 - (-6y^2) =
-10y^2 - 3y^2 - 4y^2 + 6y^2 =
-17y^2 + 6y^2 =
- 11y^2
Answer:
55.9234
Step-by-step explanation:
1.5*60=90
90km=(x) miles
