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konstantin123 [22]
2 years ago
11

A company has inventory that cost $50,000. Its scrap value is $65,000. The inventory could be sold for $150,000 if manufactured

further at an additional cost of $80,000. What should this company do?
Business
1 answer:
Lemur [1.5K]2 years ago
7 0

Answer:

It is more profitable to continue processing.

Explanation:

Giving the following information:

A company has inventory that cost $50,000. Its scrap value is $65,000. The inventory could be sold for $150,000 if manufactured further at an additional cost of $80,000.

Sell for scrap= 65,000 - 50,000= 15,000

Continue processing= 150,000 - 80,000 - 50,000= 20,000

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Answer:

       Checks like money-? Because then, you are talking prices. The higher the price the more it most likely is. If you run a company, to you you want to make the higher quality things more, unless you just want to scam somebody. Thats all i can do for now, i can finish later maybe.

Explanation:

Checks like money-?

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Instructions: Please make sure that you show all your work when solving the problems. Feel free to make any assumptions whenever
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Answer:

Explanation:

From the given information:

The current price = \dfrac{Dividend(D_o) \times (1+ Growth  \ rate) }{\text{Cost of capital -Growth rate}}

15 = \dfrac{0.50 \times (1+ Growth rate)}{8\%-Growth rate}

15 \times (8 -Growth \  rate) = 0.50 +(0.50 \times growth  \  rate)

1.20 - (15 \times Growth \ rate) = 0.50 + (0.50 \times growth \ rate)

0.70 = (15 \times growth  \ rate) \\ \\ Growth  \ rate = \dfrac{0.70}{15.50} \\ \\ Growth  \ rate = 0.04516 \\ \\ Growth  \ rate \simeq 4.52\% \\ \\

2. The value of the stock  

Calculate the earnings at the end of  5 years:

Earnings (E_o) \times Dividend \  payout  \ ratio = Dividend (D_o) \\ \\ Earnings (E_o) \times 35\% = \$0.50 \\ \\ Earnings (E_o) =\dfrac{\$0.50}{35\%} \\ \\ = \$1.42857

Earnings (E_5) year \  5  = Earnings (E_o) \times (1 + Growth \ rate)^{no \ of \ years} \\ \\ Earnings (E_5) year \  5  = \$1.42857 \times (1 + 12\%)^5 \\ \\ Earnings (E_5) year \ 5  = \$2.51763

Terminal value year 5 = \dfrac{Earnings (E_5) \times (1+ Growth \ rate)}{Interest \ rate - Growth \ rate}

=\dfrac{\$2.51763\times (1+0.04516)}{8\%-0.04516}

=$75.526

Discount all potential future cash flows as follows to determine the stock's value:

\text{Value of stock today} =\bigg( \sum \limits ^{\text{no of years}}_{year =1} \dfrac{Dividend (D_o) \times 1 +Growth rate ) ^{\text{no of years}}}{(1+ interest rate )^{no\ of\ years} }

+ \dfrac{Terminal\ Value }{(1+interest \ rate )^{no \ of \ years}} \Bigg)

\implies \bigg(\dfrac{\$0.50\times (1 + 12\%)^1) }{(1+ 8\%)^{1} }+ \dfrac{\$0.50\times (1+12\%)^2 }{(1+8\% )^{2}}+ \dfrac{\$0.50\times (1+12\%)^3 }{(1+8\% )^{3}}  + \dfrac{\$0.50\times (1+12\%)^4 }{(1+8\% )^{4}} + \dfrac{\$0.50\times (1+12\%)^5 }{(1+8\% )^{5}} + \dfrac{\$75.526}{(1+8\% )^{5}} \bigg )

\implies \bigg(\dfrac{\$0.5600}{1.0800}+\dfrac{\$0.62720}{1.16640}+\dfrac{\$0.70246}{1.2597}+\dfrac{\$0.78676}{1.3605}+\dfrac{\$0.88117}{1.4693}+ \dfrac{\$75.526}{1.4693} \bigg)

=$ 54.1945

As a result, the analysts value the stock at $54.20, which is below their own estimates.

3. The value of the stock  

Calculate the earnings at the end of  5 years:

Earnings (E_o) \times Dividend payout ratio = Dividend (D_o) \\ \\ Earnings (E_o) \times 35\% = \$0.50 \\ \\ Earnings (E_o) =\dfrac{\$0.50}{35\%}\\ \\ = \$1.42857

Earnings (E_5) year  \ 5  = Earnings (E_o) \times (1 + Growth \ rate)^{no \ of \ years} \\ \\ Earnings (E_5) year  \ 5  = \$1.42857 \times (1 + 12\%)^5 \\ \\ Earnings (E_5) year \  5  = \$2.51763 \\ \\

Terminal value year 5 =\dfrac{Earnings (E_5) \times (1+ Growth \ rate)\times dividend \ payout \ ratio}{Interest \ rate - Growth \ rate}

=\dfrac{\$2.51763\times (1+ 7 \%) \times 20\%}{8\%-7\%}

=$53.8773

Discount all potential cash flows as follows to determine the stock's value:

\text{Value of stock today} =\bigg( \sum \limits ^{\text{no of years}}_{year =1} \dfrac{Dividend (D_o) \times 1 + Growth rate ) ^{\text{no of years}}}{(1+ interest rate )^{no \ of\ years} }+ \dfrac{Terminal \ Value }{(1+interest \ rate )^{no \ of \ years }}   \bigg)

\implies \bigg( \dfrac{\$0.50\times (1 + 12\%)^1) }{(1+ 8\%)^{1} }+ \dfrac{\$0.50\times (1+12\%)^2 }{(1+8\% )^{2}}+ \dfrac{\$0.50\times (1+12\%)^3 }{(1+8\% )^{3}}  + \dfrac{\$0.50\times (1+12\%)^4 }{(1+8\% )^{4}} + \dfrac{\$0.50\times (1+12\%)^5 }{(1+8\% )^{5}} + \dfrac{\$53.8773}{(1+8\% )^{5}} \bigg)

\implies \bigg (\dfrac{\$0.5600}{1.0800}+\dfrac{\$0.62720}{1.16640}+\dfrac{\$0.70246}{1.2597}+\dfrac{\$0.78676}{1.3605}+\dfrac{\$0.88117}{1.4693}+ \dfrac{\$53.8773}{1.4693} \bigg)

=$39.460

As a result, the price is $39.460, and the other strategy would raise the value of the shareholders. Not this one, since paying a 100% dividend would result in a price of $54.20, which is higher than the current price.

Notice that the third question depicts the situation after 5 years, but the final decision will be the same since we are discounting in current terms. If compounding is used, the future value over 5 years is just the same as the first choice, which is the better option.

The presumption in the second portion is that after 5 years, the steady growth rate would be the same as measured in the first part (1).

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