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Molodets [167]
3 years ago
14

When you drop a pebble from height h, it reaches the ground with kinetic energy k if there is no air resistance. from what heigh

t should you drop it so it will reach the ground with twice as much kinetic energy?
Physics
1 answer:
Komok [63]3 years ago
4 0
-- The kinetic energy it has when it hits the ground is exactly
the potential energy it had just before you dropped it.

-- So if you want it to have twice as much kinetic energy at the bottom,
you want it to have twice as much potential energy at the top.

-- Potential energy = (mass)·(gravity)·(height).
The only one of those things that you can change is the height.

Looking at that equation, you can see that if you change the height,
the potential energy changes by the same factor.

So if you want the pebble to have twice as much potential energy,
you have to drop it from twice the original height.  (2h)
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pshichka [43]

Answer:

d = 69 .57 meter

Explanation:

First case

Speed of car ( v )  = 20.5 mi/h  = 9.164  M/S

distance ( d ) = 11.6 meter                                       ( m = mass of the car )

Work done = 0.5 m v²  = 0.5 * 9.164² * m J  = 41.99 m J

Force = ( workdone /distance ) = ( 41.99 m / 11.6 )   =  3.619 m N

Second case

v = 50.2 mi/h = 22.44135 m/s

d = ?

Work done = 0.5 * 22.44² * m J = 251.7768 * m J

Since the braking force remains the same .

3.619 m = ( 251.7768 m / d )

d = 69 .57 meter

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3 years ago
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3 years ago
Two ropes have equal length and are stretched the same way. The speed of a pulse on rope 1 is 1.4 times the speed on rope 2. Par
kondor19780726 [428]

Answer:

m1/m2 = 0.51

Explanation:

First to all, let's gather the data. We know that both rods, have the same length. Now, the expression to use here is the following:

V = √F/u

This is the equation that describes the relation between speed of a pulse and a force exerted on it.

the value of "u" is:

u = m/L

Where m is the mass of the rod, and L the length.

Now, for the rod 1:

V1 = √F/u1 (1)

rod 2:

V2 = √F/u2 (2)

Now, let's express V1 in function of V2, because we know that V1 is 1.4 times the speed of rod 2, so, V1 = 1.4V2. Replacing in the equation (1) we have:

1.4V2 = √F/u1 (3)

Replacing (2) in (3):

1.4(√F/u2) = √F/u1 (4)

Now, let's solve the equation 4:

[1.4(√F/u2)]² = F/u1

1.96(F/u2) =F/u1

1.96F = F*u2/u1

1.96 = u2/u1 (5)

Now, replacing the expression of u into (5) we have the following:

1.96 = m2/L / m1/L

1.96 = m2/m1 (6)

But we need m1/m2 so:

1.96m1 = m2

m1/m2 = 1/1.96

m1/m2 = 0.51

5 0
4 years ago
Identical isolated conducting spheres 1 and 2 have equal charges and are separated by a distance that is large compared with the
likoan [24]

Answer:

0.375

Explanation:

When the 3rd sphere touches the 1st one, the charge will then be distributed between both of them, then now the 1st sphere has only half of his original charge.

In this moment then

Sphere 1 has a charge = Q/2

Sphere 3 has a charge = Q/2

When the 3rd sphere touches the 2nd sphere again the charge is distributed in a manner that both sphere has the same charge.

How the total charge is

Q = Q/2 + Q = 3/2Q,

When the spheres are separated each one has 3/4Q

Sphere 2 has a charge = 3/4Q

Sphere 3 has a charge = 3/4Q

The electrostatic force that acts on sphere 2 due to sphere 1 is:

F = (kq1q2) / r²

F = (Q/2 * 3Q/4) / r²

F = (Q² * 3) / 8r²

From the question, F = 0.42 = kQ²/r²

Thus, we can say that

F = (0.42 * 3) / 8

F = 0.1575

Thus, the ratio between F/F =

0.1575 / 0.42

Ratio, r = 0.375

4 0
3 years ago
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