Answer:
I think its the Blue wave, im not sure so dont take my word for it.
Explanation:
The final velocity of skater 1 is 3.7 m/s to the right. The right option is O A. 3.7 m/s to the right.
<h3>What is velocity?</h3>
Velocity can be defined as the ratio of the displacement and time of a body.
To calculate the final velocity of Skater 1 we use the formula below.
Formula:
- mu+MU = mv+MV............ Equation 1
Where:
- m = mass of the first skater
- M = mass of the second skater
- u = initial velocity of the first skater
- U = initial velocity of the second skater
- v = final velocity of the first skater
- V = final velocity of the second skater.
make v the subject of the equation.
- v = (mu+MU-MV)/m................ Equation 2
Note: Let left direction represent negative and right direction represent positive.
From the question,
Given:
- m = 105 kg
- u = -2 m/s
- M = 71 kg
- U = 5 m/s
- V = -3.4 m/s.
Substitute these values into equation 2
- v = [(105×(-2))+(71×5)-(71×(-3.4))]/105
- v = (-210+355+241.4)/105
- v = 386.4/105
- v = 3.68 m/s
- v ≈ 3.7 m/s
Hence, the final velocity of skater 1 is 3.7 m/s to the right. The right option is O A. 3.7 m/s to the right.
Learn more about velocity here: brainly.com/question/25749514
Answer:
L = μ₀ n r / 2I
Explanation:
This exercise we must relate several equations, let's start writing the voltage in a coil
= - L dI / dt
Let's use Faraday's law
E = - d Ф_B / dt
in the case of the coil this voltage is the same, so we can equal the two relationships
- d Ф_B / dt = - L dI / dt
The magnetic flux is the sum of the flux in each turn, if there are n turns in the coil
n d Ф_B = L dI
we can remove the differentials
n Ф_B = L I
magnetic flux is defined by
Ф_B = B . A
in this case the direction of the magnetic field is along the coil and the normal direction to the area as well, therefore the scalar product is reduced to the algebraic product
n B A = L I
the loop area is
A = π R²
we substitute
n B π R² = L I (1)
To find the magnetic field in the coil let's use Ampere's law
∫ B. ds = μ₀ I
where B is the magnetic field and s is the current circulation, in the coil the current circulates along the length of the coil
s = 2π R
we solve
B 2ππ R = μ₀ I
B = μ₀ I / 2πR
we substitute in
n ( μ₀ I / 2πR) π R² = L I
n μ₀ R / 2 = L I
L = μ₀ n r / 2I
As we know that force F makes an angle of 60 degree with X axis
so the X component is given as

now we have


Similarly we know that force F makes an angle of 45 degree with Y axis
so the X component is given as

now we have


Now for the component along z axis we know that

now plug in all components





True,
Explanation: because it’s the same reason that lighting touches the ground/ goes up to the sky, because it is trying to balance out its charges